Title 19 CFR · 72 exam questions
19 CFR Part 141: Entry of Merchandise
19 CFR Part 141, section by section, with every released customs broker license exam question in the CBLEsim bank that tests it. Drawn from 14 released sittings, April 2019 through October 2025.
Edition shown: the 2025 annual edition of Title 19, revised as of April 1, 2025. It is the edition the October 2026 customs broker exam is graded against, and it can differ from the regulation in force today. For the current official text see 19 CFR Part 141 on eCFR.
Sections of Part 141
Every section opens in place. A linked section has its own page, with the exam questions that turn on it.
§ 141.0Scope
This part sets forth general requirements and procedures for the entry of imported merchandise, except entries under carnet, and entries for transportation in bond or exportation, for foreign-trade zones, or for trade fairs, which are covered in parts 114, 18, 146, and 147 of this chapter. More specific requirements and procedures in addition to those in this part are set forth in parts 143, 144, and 145 of this chapter for consumption, appraisement and informal entries, for warehouse entries, and for mail entries.
§ 141.0aDefinitions
Unless the context requires otherwise or a different definition is prescribed, the following terms will have the meanings indicated when used in connection with the entry of merchandise:
(a) Entry. “Entry” means that documentation or data required by § 142.3 of this chapter to be filed with the appropriate CBP officer or submitted electronically to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system to secure the release of imported merchandise from CBP custody, or the act of filing that documentation. “Entry” also means that documentation or data required by § 181.53 or 182.53 of this chapter to be filed with CBP to withdraw merchandise from a duty-deferral program in the United States for exportation to Canada or Mexico or for entry into a duty-deferral program in Canada or Mexico.
(b) Entry summary. “Entry summary” means any other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law or regulation are met.
(c) Submission. “Submission” means the voluntary delivery to the appropriate CBP officer or electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system of the entry summary documentation or data for preliminary review or of entry documentation or data for other purposes.
(d) Filing. “Filing” means:
(1) The delivery to CBP, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, of the entry documentation or data required by section 484(a), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484(a)), to obtain the release of merchandise, or
(2) The delivery to CBP, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, together with the deposit of estimated duties, of the entry summary documentation or data required to assess duties, collect statistics, and determine whether other requirements of law and regulation are met, or
(3) The delivery to CBP, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, together with the deposit of estimated duties, of the entry summary documentation or data, which will serve as both the entry and the entry summary.
(e) Presentation. “Presentation” is used only in connection with quota-class merchandise and is defined in § 132.1(d) of this chapter.
(f) Entered for consumption. “Entered for consumption” means that an entry summary for consumption has been filed with CBP in proper form, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, with estimated duties attached. “Entered for consumption” also means the necessary documentation has been filed with CBP to withdraw merchandise from a duty-deferral program in the United States for exportation to Canada or Mexico or for entry into a duty-deferral program in Canada or Mexico (see § 181.53 or 182.53 of this chapter).
(g) Entered for warehouse. “Entered for warehouse” means that an entry summary for warehouse has been filed with CBP in proper form, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system.
(h) Entered temporarily under bond. “Entered temporarily under bond” means that an entry summary supporting a temporary importation under bond has been filed with CBP in proper form, including electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system.
(i) Released conditionally. “Released conditionally” means any release from CBP custody before liquidation.
§ 141.1Liability of importer for duties
(a) Time duties accrue. Duties and the liability for their payment accrue upon imported merchandise on arrival of the importing vessel within a Customs port with the intent then and there to unlade, or at the time of arrival within the Customs territory of the United States if the merchandise arrives otherwise than by vessel, unless otherwise specially provided for by law.
(b) Payment of duties—(1) Personal debt of importer. The liability for duties, both regular and additional, attaching on importation, constitutes a personal debt due from the importer to the United States which can be discharged only by payment in full of all duties legally accruing, unless relieved by law or regulation. Payment to a broker covering duties does not relieve the importer of liability if the duties are not paid by the broker. The liability may be enforced notwithstanding the fact that an erroneous construction of law or regulation may have enabled the importer to pass his goods through the customhouse without payment. Delivery of a Customs bond with an entry is solely to protect the revenue of the United States and does not relieve the importer of liabilities incurred from the importation of merchandise into the United States.
(2) Means of payment. An importer or his agent may pay Customs by using any of the applicable means provided in § 24.1(a).
(3) Methods of payment. An importer may pay duties either:
(i) Directly to Customs whether or not a licensed customhouse broker is used; or
(ii) Through a licensed customhouse broker. When an importer uses a broker and elects to pay by check or bank draft, the importer may issue the broker either:
(A) One check or bank draft payable to the broker covering both duties and the broker's fees and charges, in which case the broker shall pay the duties to Customs on behalf of the importer, or
(B) Separate checks or bank drafts, one covering duties payable to the “U.S. Customs Service,” for transmittal by the broker to Customs, and the other covering the broker's fees and charges. The importer's check or bank draft for duties shall be delivered to Customs by the broker.
(c) Claim against estate of importer. The claim of the Government for unpaid duties against the estate of a deceased or insolvent importer has priority over obligations to creditors other than the United States. To the extent that a broker or a surety pays duties on behalf of an importer which files for bankruptcy protection, the broker or surety shall be entitled to assume the priority status of Customs under section 507(a)(7) of the Bankruptcy Code for that portion of Customs claim which the surety or broker has paid.
(d) Lien against merchandise. The liability for duties also constitutes a lien upon the merchandise imported which may be enforced while such merchandise is in the custody or subject to the control of the United States.
(e) States and their instrumentalities. Neither the States nor their instrumentalities are entitled to any constitutional exemption from the payment of Customs duties.
(f) Unordered merchandise. There shall be no liability for the payment of duties on the part of anyone to whom merchandise is consigned without his authority, if he refuses it. Such merchandise shall be treated as unclaimed (see part 27 of this chapter).
§ 141.2Liability for duties on reimportation
Dutiable merchandise imported and afterwards exported, even though duty thereon may have been paid on the first importation, is liable to duty on every subsequent importation into the Customs territory of the United States, but this does not apply to the following:
(a) Personal and household effects taken abroad by a resident of the United States and brought back on his return to this country (see § 148.31 of this chapter);
(b) Professional books, implements, instruments, and tools of trade, occupation, or employment taken abroad by an individual and brought back on his return to this country (see § 148.53 of this chapter);
(c) Automobiles and other vehicles taken abroad for noncommercial use (see § 148.32 of this chapter);
(d) Metal boxes, casks, barrels, carboys, bags, quicksilver flasks or bottles, metal drums, or other substantial outer containers exported from the United States empty and returned as usual containers or coverings of merchandise, or exported filled with products of the United States and returned empty or as the usual containers or coverings of merchandise (see § 10.7(b), (c), (d), and (e) of this chapter);
(e) Articles exported from the United States for repairs or alterations, which may be returned upon the payment of duty on the value of repairs or alterations at the rate or rates which would otherwise apply to the articles in their repaired or altered conditions (see § 10.8 of this chapter);
(f) Articles exported for exhibition under certain conditions (see §§ 10.66 and 10.67 of this chapter);
(g) Domestic animals taken abroad for temporary pasturage purposes and returned within 8 months (see § 10.74 of this chapter);
(h) Articles exported under lease to a foreign manufacturer (see § 10.108 of this chapter); or
(i) Any other reimported articles for which free entry is specifically provided.
§ 141.3Liability for duties includes liability for taxes
The importer's liability for duties includes a liability for any internal revenue taxes which attach upon the importation of merchandise, unless otherwise provided by law or regulation.
§ 141.4Entry required
(a) General. All merchandise imported into the United States is required to be entered, unless specifically excepted.
(b) Exceptions. The following are the exceptions to the general rule:
(1) The exemptions listed in General Note 3(e) to the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS).
(2) Vessels (not including vessels classified in headings 8903 and 8907 and subheadings 8905.90.10 and 8906.00.10 or in Chapter 98, HTSUS, such as under subheadings 9804.00.35 or 9813.00.35). See also Chapter 89, Additional U.S. Note 1, HTSUS.
(3) Instruments of international traffic described in § 10.41a and § 10.41b(b) of this chapter, under the conditions provided for in those sections. See also Chapter 98, Subpart III, U.S. Notes 3 and 4, HTSUS.
(4) Railway locomotives classified in heading 8601 or 8602, HTSUS, and freight cars classified in heading 8606, HTSUS, on which no duty is owed (see paragraph (d) of this section). See Chapter 86, Additional U.S. Note 1, HTSUS; see also 19 CFR part 123 for reporting requirements for railway equipment brought into the United States from Canada or Mexico.
(c) Undeliverable articles. The exemption from entry for undeliverable articles under General Note 3(e), HTSUS, is subject to the following conditions:
(1) The person claiming the exemption must submit a certification (documentary or electronic) that:
(i) The merchandise was intended to be exported to a foreign country;
(ii) The merchandise is being returned within 45 days of departure from the United States;
(iii) The merchandise did not leave the custody of the carrier or foreign customs;
(iv) The merchandise is being returned to the United States because it was undeliverable to the foreign consignee; and
(v) The merchandise was not sent abroad to receive benefit from, or fulfill obligations to, the United States as a result of exportation.
(2) Upon request by CBP, the person claiming the exemption shall provide evidence required to support the claim for exemption.
(d) Railway locomotives and freight cars. For railway locomotives and freight cars described in Additional U.S. Note 1 of Chapter 86, HTSUS, to be excepted and released in accordance with paragraph (b)(4) of this section, the importer must first file a bond on CBP Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in either § 113.62 or 113.64 of this chapter.
(e) Informal entry. Merchandise qualifying for informal entry by regulation, pursuant to 19 U.S.C. 1498, is exempt from formal entry under 19 U.S.C. 1484 and this part, but must be entered as required under applicable regulations (see part 143, subpart C, and §§ 10.151 through 10.153, 128.24, 145.31, 145.32, 148.12, 148.13, 148.51, and 148.62 of this chapter).
Editorial Note:
§ 141.5Time limit for entry
Merchandise for which entry is required will be entered within 15 calendar days after landing from a vessel, aircraft or vehicle, or after arrival at the port of destination in the case of merchandise transported in bond. Merchandise for which timely entry is not made will be treated in accordance with § 4.37 or § 122.50 or § 123.10 of this chapter.
§ 141.11Evidence of right to make entry for importations by common carrier
(a) Merchandise not released directly to carrier. Except where merchandise is released directly to the carrier in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section, one of the following types of evidence of the right to make entry shall be filed in connection with the entry of merchandise imported by common carrier:
(1) A bill of lading or air waybill, presented by the holder thereof, properly endorsed when endorsement is required under the law. A nonnegotiable bill of lading, or air waybill, may not be endorsed by the named consignee to give someone else the right to make entry. If the person making entry intends to use the original bill of lading or air waybill to obtain a duplicate bill of lading, duplicate air waybill, or carrier's certificate from the carrier, the exchange shall be made before the entry is filed, and the duplicate bill of lading, duplicate air waybill, or carrier's certificate shall be used to make entry in accordance with paragraph (a) (3) or (4) of this section. For purposes of this part, the rights of the consignor relating to an air waybill as prescribed by the Warsaw Convention (49 Stat. 3017) shall be protected.
(2) An extract from a bill of lading or air waybill certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry. Customs officers shall not certify extracts from bills of lading or air waybills.
(3) A certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill, with the carrier's certificate being in substantially the following form:
Duplicate Bill Of Lading or Air Waybill Certificate __________, 19— The undersigned carrier, bringing the within-described merchandise to this port, hereby certifies that this signed copy of the bill of lading or air waybill is genuine and may be used for the purpose of making Customs entry as provided for in section 484(i), Tariff Act of 1930. (Name of carrier) (Agent)
Duplicate Bill Of Lading or Air Waybill Certificate
The undersigned carrier, bringing the within-described merchandise to this port, hereby certifies that this signed copy of the bill of lading or air waybill is genuine and may be used for the purpose of making Customs entry as provided for in section 484(i), Tariff Act of 1930.
(4) A carrier's certificate, which may be executed on the official entry form, or, in appropriate cases, by means of a rubber-stamped or typewritten combined carrier's certificate and release order with one signature on a copy of the bill of lading, airway bill, shipping receipt, or other comparable document. The rubber-stamped or typewritten certificate shall be in substantially the following form, which may be varied to include any of the qualifications on release shown in § 141.111(d):
Date ____________ The undersigned carrier, to whom or upon whose order the articles described herein or in the attached document must be released, hereby certifies that the consignee named in this document is the owner or consignee of such articles within the purview of section 484(h), Tariff Act of 1930. In accordance with the provisions of section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, authority is hereby given to release the articles covered by the aforementioned statement to such consignee. (Name of carrier) (Agent)
The undersigned carrier, to whom or upon whose order the articles described herein or in the attached document must be released, hereby certifies that the consignee named in this document is the owner or consignee of such articles within the purview of section 484(h), Tariff Act of 1930. In accordance with the provisions of section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, authority is hereby given to release the articles covered by the aforementioned statement to such consignee.
(5) A blanket carrier's release order on an appropriately modified bill of lading or air waybill covering any or all shipments which will arrive at the port on the carrier's conveyance during the period specified in the release order.
(6) A shipping receipt or other document presented in lieu of a bill of lading or air waybill shall be accepted as authority for making entry only if it bears a carrier's certificate in accordance with paragraph (a)(4) of this section, or if entry is made by the actual consignee in person or in his name by a duly authorized agent.
(b) Merchandise released directly to carrier. Where, in accordance with subsection (j) of section 484, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484), merchandise is released from Customs custody (either under immediate delivery procedures in accordance with the provisions of subpart C of part 142 of this chapter, or after an entry has been filed in accordance with subpart A of part 142 of this chapter, or after an entry summary, which shall serve as both the entry and entry summary has been filed with estimated duties attached where appropriate in accordance with subpart B of part 142 of this chapter), to the carrier by whom the merchandise was brought to the port, the delivery of the merchandise by the carrier to the person filing the entry summary with estimated duties attached shall be deemed to be the certification required by subsection (h), section 484, Tariff Act of 1930. Customs responsibility under this optional entry procedure is limited to the collection of duties, and constitutes no representation whatsoever regarding the right of any person to obtain possession of the merchandise from the carrier. Consequently, no Customs official shall be liable to any person in respect to the delivery of merchandise released from Customs custody in accordance with the provisions of this paragraph.
§ 141.12Right to make entry of importations by other than common carrier
When merchandise is not imported by a common carrier, possession of the merchandise at the time of arrival in the United States shall be deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry.
§ 141.13Right to make entry of abandoned or salvaged merchandise
Underwriters of abandoned merchandise or salvors of merchandise saved from a wreck who are unable to produce a bill of lading, air waybill, certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill, or carrier's certificate, shall produce evidence satisfactory to the port director of their right to act.
§ 141.14Deceased or insolvent consignees and court-appointed administrators
The executor or administrator of the estate of a deceased consignee, the receiver or other legal representative of an insolvent consignee, or the representative appointed in any action or proceeding at law to act for a consignee shall not be permitted to make entry unless he produces a duly endorsed bill of lading or air waybill, a carrier's certificate, or a duplicate bill of lading or air waybill, executed in accordance with subsections (h) or (i) of section 484, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484), showing him to be the consignee for Customs purposes.
§ 141.15Bond for production of bill of lading or air waybill
(a) When appropriate. If the person desiring to make entry is unable to present a bill of lading, air waybill, or other evidence of right to make entry in accordance with § 141.11, the port director may accept a bond for the production of a bill of lading or air waybill under the provisions of section 484(c), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484(c)). The bond shall be for the production of a bill of lading or air waybill, unless the person making entry intends to produce a carrier's certificate or certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill. In that case, no bond is required because section 484(c) does not apply to entries made on a carrier's certificate or certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill. If the port director is in doubt as to the propriety of accepting entry on a bond for the production of a bill of lading or air waybill, he shall request authority to do so from the Commissioner of Customs.
(b) Form. The bond shall be on Customs Form 301 and contain the bond conditions set forth in § 113.69 of this chapter.
(c) Documents acceptable to satisfy bond. A bond given for the production of a bill of lading or air waybill shall be considered as canceled upon production of a bill of lading or air waybill, and may be considered as satisfied but shall not be canceled upon the production of a carrier's certificate or certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill.
§ 141.16Disposition of documents
(a) Bill of lading or air waybill. When the return of the bill of lading or air waybill to the person making entry is requested in accordance with section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484(j)), the port director shall obtain a receipt showing sufficient data from the bill of lading or air waybill to completely identify it and enable the auditor to verify the production of proper evidence of the right to make entry. The receipt shall also show any freight charges and weights that appear on the bill of lading or air waybill. The port director shall then return the bill of lading or air waybill to the person making entry with a notation thereon to the effect that entry has been made for the merchandise.
(b) Other documents. When any of the other documents specified in § 141.11(a) (2) through (6) is used in making entry, it shall be retained by the port director as evidence that the person making entry is authorized to do so.
§ 141.17Entry by nonresident consignee
A nonresident consignee has the right to make entry, but any bond taken in connection with the entry shall have a resident corporate surety or, when a carnet issued under part 114 of this chapter is used as an entry form, an approved resident guaranteeing association.
§ 141.18Entry by nonresident corporation
A nonresident corporation (i.e., one which is not incorporated within the customs territory of the United States or in the Virgin Islands of the United States) may not enter merchandise for consumption unless it:
(a) Has a resident agent in the State where the port of entry is located who is authorized to accept service of process against that corporation or, in the case of an entry filed from a remote location pursuant to subpart E of part 143 of this chapter, has a resident agent authorized to accept service of process against that corporation either in the State where the port of entry is located or in the State from which the remote location filing originates; and
(b) Files a bond on CBP Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter having a resident corporate surety to secure the payment of any increased and additional duties which may be found due.
§ 141.19Declaration of entry
(a) Declaration by consignee. The consignee in whose name an entry is made under the provisions of section 484, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484), shall execute the declaration specified in section 485(a), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(a)) on:
(1) The entry summary for merchandise entered for consumption, for warehouse, or for temporary importation under bond, or
(2) The rewarehouse or the bonded manufacturing warehouse entry.
The declaration need not be under oath. When the consignee is a partnership, any partner may execute the declaration, and when the consignee is a corporation any officer of the corporation may execute the declaration.
(b) Declaration by agent of consignee—(1) Authorized agent with knowledge of the facts. When entry is made in a consignee's name by an agent who has knowledge of the facts and who is authorized under a proper power of attorney by that consignee to make declarations in accordance with section 485(f), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(f)), a declaration on the entry or entry summary executed by that agent is sufficient and no bond to produce a declaration of the consignee is required.
(2) Other agents. When entry is made in a consignee's name by an agent who does not meet the qualifications in paragraph (b)(1) of this section either:
(i) A declaration of the consignee on Customs Form 3347-A shall be filed with the entry documentation or entry summary or
(ii) A charge for the production of the declaration shall be made against the bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter. No separate bond of the agent shall be required, since a charge against the bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter satisfies the requirements of section 485(c), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(c)).
(3) Nominal consignee. A nominal consignee who makes entry in his own name is not considered an agent within the purview of section 485(c), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(c)), and he shall execute a declaration in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section.
(c) Books, newspapers, and periodicals. In the case of successive importations of books, magazines, newspapers, and periodicals within the scope of section 485(b), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(b)), one declaration filed at the time of arrival of the first importation will be sufficient.
§ 141.20Actual owner's declaration and superseding bond of actual owner
(a) Filing—(1) Declaration of owner. A consignee in whose name an entry summary for consumption, warehouse, or temporary importation under bond is filed, or in whose name a rewarehouse entry or a manufacturing warehouse entry is made, and who desires, under the provisions of section 485(d), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(d)), to be relieved from statutory liability for the payment of increased and additional duties shall declare at the time of the filing of the entry summary or entry documentation, as provided in § 141.19(a), that he is not the actual owner of the merchandise, furnish the name and address of the owner, and file with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically within 90 days from the time of entry (see § 141.68) a declaration of the actual owner of the merchandise acknowledging that the actual owner will pay all additional and increased duties. The declaration of owner shall be filed on Customs Form 3347.
(2) Bond of actual owner. If the consignee desires to be relieved from contractual liability for the payment of increased and additional duties voluntarily assumed by him under the single-entry bond which he filed in connection with the entry documentation and/or entry summary, or under his continuous bond against which the entry and/or entry summary is charged, he shall file a bond of the actual owner on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter, with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically within 90 days from the time of entry.
(b) Appropriate party to execute and file. Neither the declaration of the actual owner nor the bond of the actual owner shall be accepted unless executed by the actual owner or his duly authorized agent, and filed by the nominal consignee or his duly authorized agent.
(c) Nonresident actual owner. If the actual owner is a nonresident, the actual owner's declaration shall not be accepted as compliance with section 485(d), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(d)), unless there is filed therewith the owner's bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter, with a resident corporate surety.
(d) Filing of declaration of owner for purposes other than relief from liability. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent the nominal consignee from filing the actual owner's declaration without the superseding bond for purposes other than relief from statutory liability for the payment of increased and additional duties under the provisions of section 485(d), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1485(d)).
§ 141.31General requirements and definitions
(a) Limited or general power of attorney. A power of attorney may be executed for the transaction by an agent or attorney of a specified part or all the Customs business of the principal.
(b) [Reserved]
(c) Minor agents. A power of attorney to a minor shall not be accepted.
(d) Definitions of resident and nonresident. For the purposes of this subpart, “resident” means an individual who resides within, or a partnership one or more of whose partners reside within, the Customs territory of the United States or the Virgin Islands of the United States, or a corporation incorporated in any jurisdiction within the Customs territory of the United States or in the Virgin Islands of the United States. A “nonresident” means an individual, partnership, or corporation not meeting the definition of “resident.”
§ 141.32Form for power of attorney
Customs Form 5291 may be used for giving power of attorney to transact Customs business. If a Customs power of attorney is not on a Customs Form 5291, it shall be either a general power of attorney with unlimited authority or a limited power of attorney as explicit in its terms and executed in the same manner as a Customs Form 5291. The following is an example of an acceptable general power of attorney with unlimited authority:
KNOW ALL MEN BY THESE PRESENTS, THAT ____________________________________________ (Name of principal) ________________________________________ , (State legal designation, such as corporation, individual, etc.) residing at ______________________________ and doing business under the laws of the State of ____________, hereby appoints (Name, legal designation, and address) as a true and lawful agent and attorney of the principal named above with full power and authority to do and perform every lawful act and thing the said agent and attorney may deem requisite and necessary to be done for and on behalf of the said principal without limitation of any kind as fully as said principal could do if present and acting, and hereby ratify and confirm all that said agent and attorney shall lawfully do or cause to be done by virtue of these presents until and including ____________, (date) or until notice of revocation in writing is duly given before that date. Date ____________________, 19____;. (Principal's signature)
KNOW ALL MEN BY THESE PRESENTS, THAT
____________________________________________
________________________________________ ,
(Name, legal designation, and address)
as a true and lawful agent and attorney of the principal named above with full power and authority to do and perform every lawful act and thing the said agent and attorney may deem requisite and necessary to be done for and on behalf of the said principal without limitation of any kind as fully as said principal could do if present and acting, and hereby ratify and confirm all that said agent and attorney shall lawfully do or cause to be done by virtue of these presents until and including ____________, (date) or until notice of revocation in writing is duly given before that date.
Date ____________________, 19____;.
§ 141.33Alternative form for noncommercial shipment
An individual (but not a partnership, association, or corporation) who is not a regular importer may appoint another individual as his unpaid agent for Customs purposes by executing a power of attorney applicable to a single noncommercial shipment by writing, printing, or stamping on the invoice, or on a separate paper attached thereto, the following statement:
__________________________; of (Name) (Address) is hereby authorized to execute, as an unpaid agent who has knowledge of the facts, pursuant to the provisions of section 485(f), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, the consignee's and owner's declarations provided for in section 485 (a) and (d), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and to enter on my behalf or for my account the goods described in the attached invoice which contains a true and complete statement of the facts concerning the shipment. Date __________________, 19____. (Signature of importer) (Address)
__________________________; of
is hereby authorized to execute, as an unpaid agent who has knowledge of the facts, pursuant to the provisions of section 485(f), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, the consignee's and owner's declarations provided for in section 485 (a) and (d), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and to enter on my behalf or for my account the goods described in the attached invoice which contains a true and complete statement of the facts concerning the shipment.
Date __________________, 19____.
§ 141.34Duration of power of attorney · full text and 7 exam questions
§ 141.35Revocation of power of attorney
Any power of attorney shall be subject to revocation at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically.
§ 141.36Nonresident principals in general
A power of attorney executed by a nonresident principal shall not be accepted unless the agent designated thereby is a resident and is authorized to accept service of process against such nonresident.
§ 141.37Additional requirements for nonresident corporations
If a nonresident corporation has not qualified to conduct business under state law in the state in which Customs district the agent is empowered to perform the delegated authority, the power of attorney shall be supported by documentation establishing the authority of the grantor designated to execute the power of attorney on behalf of the corporation.
§ 141.38Resident corporations
A power of attorney shall not be required if the person signing Customs documents on behalf of a resident corporation is known to CBP to be the president, vice president, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation. When a power of attorney is required for a resident corporation, it shall be executed by a person duly authorized to do so.
§ 141.39Partnerships · full text and 5 exam questions
§ 141.40Trusteeships
A trustee may execute a power of attorney for the transaction of Customs business incident to the trusteeship.
§ 141.41Surety on Customs bonds
Powers of attorney to sign as surety on Customs bonds are subject to the requirements set forth in part 113 of this chapter.
§ 141.42Protests
Powers of attorney to file protests are subject to the requirements set forth in § 174.3 of this chapter.
§ 141.43Delegation to subagents
(a) Resident principals. Except as otherwise provided for in paragraph (c) of this section, the holder of a power of attorney for a resident principal cannot appoint a subagent except for the purpose of filing Electronic Export Information (EEI). A subagent so appointed cannot delegate his power.
(b) Nonresident principals. Except as otherwise provided for in paragraph (c) of this section, an agent who has power of attorney for a nonresident principal may execute a power of attorney delegating authority to a subagent only if the original power of attorney contains express authority from the principal for the appointment of a subagent or subagents. Any subagent so appointed must be a resident authorized to accept service of process in accordance with § 141.36.
(c) Customhouse brokers. A power of attorney executed in favor of a licensed customhouse broker may specify that the power of attorney is granted to the broker to act through any of its licensed officers or authorized employees as provided in part 111 of this chapter.
§ 141.44Designation of Center and Customs ports in which power of attorney is valid
Unless a power of attorney specifically authorizes the agent to act thereunder at the appropriate Center and at all CBP ports, the name of the appropriate Center or each port where the agent is authorized to act thereunder shall be stated in the power of attorney. The power of attorney shall be filed with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically, in a sufficient number of copies for distribution to the appropriate Center and each port where the agent is to act, unless exempted from filing by § 141.46. The Center director or port director with whom a power of attorney is filed, irrespective of whether his Center or port is named, shall approve it, if it is in the correct form and the provisions of this subpart are complied with, and forward any copies intended for other ports or another Center as appropriate.
§ 141.45Certified copies of power of attorney
Upon request of a party in interest, a Center Director or port director having on file an original power of attorney document (which is not limited to transactions in a specific Customs location) will forward a certified copy of the document to another Center director or port director.
§ 141.46Power of attorney retained by customhouse broker
Before transacting Customs business in the name of his principal, a customhouse broker is required to obtain a valid power of attorney to do so. He is not required to file the power of attorney with CBP. Customhouse brokers shall retain powers of attorney with their books and papers, and make them available to representatives of the Department of the Treasury as provided in subpart C of part 111 of this chapter.
§ 141.51Quantity usually required to be in one entry
All merchandise arriving on one conveyance and consigned to one consignee must be included on one entry, except as provided in § 141.52. In addition, a shipment of merchandise that arrives by separate conveyances at the same port of entry in multiple portions, either as a shipment split by the carrier or as components of a large unassembled or disassembled entity, may be processed under a single entry, as prescribed, respectively, in §§ 141.57 and 141.58.
§ 141.52Separate entries for different portions
If the Center director is satisfied that there will be no prejudice to: Import admissibility enforcement efforts; the revenue; and the efficient conduct of Customs business, separate entries may be made for different portions of all merchandise arriving on one vessel or vehicle and consigned to one consignee under any of the following circumstances:
(a) Each portion of a consolidated shipment addressed to one consignee for various ultimate consignees may be entered separately under the procedure set forth in § 141.54.
(b) One or more of the enclosed packages in a packaged package may be entered separately under any appropriate form of formal or informal entry. No entry is required for an enclosed package which contains merchandise unconditionally free of duty and not exceeding $250 in value. A packed package is an outer package in which are contained inner packages addressed for delivery to two or more different persons, as described in section 484(f), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1484(f)). Each outer container shall be marked to indicate that it is a packed package.
(c) The consignee desires to enter different portions under different forms of entry, for transportation to different ports of entry, or for warehousing in separate warehouses.
(d) Appraisement is being withheld upon merchandise of the class or kind for which a separate entry is tendered.
(e) The several portions of the consignment for which separate entries are tendered are covered by separate bills of lading.
(f) The consignment consists of different classes of merchandise which are to be processed by different Customs commodity specialist teams.
(g) The consignment contains merchandise subject to entry under a bond given to assure accounting for final disposition, such as a temporary importation under bond.
(h) The consignment consists of different importations which arrived under a consolidated entry for immediate transportation made pursuant to § 18.11(g) of this chapter.
(i) A special application is submitted to the Commissioner of Customs with the recommendation of the Center director concerned and is approved by the Commissioner.
§ 141.53Procedure for separate entries
When separate entries for one consignment are made in accordance with § 141.52 (b) through (i), the following procedures shall apply:
(a) The entries shall be presented simultaneously when practicable.
(b) A separate consignee's declaration shall be filed for each entry.
(c) Each entry shall cover whole packages or not less than 1 ton of bulk merchandise, except when a portion of the merchandise is entered under a temporary importation bond in accordance with Chapter 98, Subchapter XIII, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (19 U.S.C. 1202).
(d) When separate entries are made for merchandise covered by a single bill of lading or air waybill, the provisions of § 141.54 shall be complied with, except that the endorsement on the bill of lading or air waybill required by § 141.54(b) shall read as follows:
As portions of the within-described merchandise will be covered by separate entries, the undersigned consignee expressly waives the right granted by section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to have this bill of lading or air waybill returned.
As portions of the within-described merchandise will be covered by separate entries, the undersigned consignee expressly waives the right granted by section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to have this bill of lading or air waybill returned.
§ 141.54Separate entries for consolidated shipments
When separate entries for consolidated shipments are made in accordance with § 141.52(a), the following procedures shall apply except where the merchandise is released directly to the carrier in accordance with § 141.11(b):
(a) Deposit of evidence of right to make entry. The nominal consignee of a consolidated shipment covering merchandise for various ultimate consignees who desire to make separate entries shall deposit with the port director evidence of the right to make entry as set forth in § 141.11(a), and such evidence shall be permanently retained by the port director.
(b) Waiver of right to have bill of lading or air waybill returned. If a bill of lading or air waybill is filed, it shall contain the following endorsement signed by the consignee named therein:
As the within-described merchandise belongs to various ultimate consignees who desire to make separate entries therefor, the undersigned consignee thereof hereby expressly waives the right granted by section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to have this bill of lading or air waybill returned.
As the within-described merchandise belongs to various ultimate consignees who desire to make separate entries therefor, the undersigned consignee thereof hereby expressly waives the right granted by section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, to have this bill of lading or air waybill returned.
(c) Certificate by nominal consignee. Except when an authority to make entry for a portion of a consolidated shipment is executed on the entry form in the space provided, at the time of depositing the bill of lading, air waybill, or other document, the named consignee shall produce a certificate prepared and signed by him for each portion of the shipment for which separate entry is desired. The authority to make entry carried by such a certificate may be transferred by endorsement. The certificate shall be in the following form:
Port of ____________ ________________________, 19____ Authority To Make Entry Of merchandise imported at ________________________, 19____, per ____________, from ____________ shipped by ____________, consigned to ____________, endorsed to ____________, covered by 1 ____________ dated ____________, 19____, at ____________ on file with the port director at ____________.
Authority To Make Entry
Of merchandise imported at ________________________, 19____, per ____________, from ____________ shipped by ____________, consigned to ____________, endorsed to ____________, covered by 1 ____________ dated ____________, 19____, at ____________ on file with the port director at ____________.
1 Insert “bill of lading,” “air waybill,” “certified duplicate bill of lading,” “certified duplicate air waybill,” “carrier's certificate,” or “shipping receipt.”
(We) (I) ________________________, the consignee(s) in the above-mentioned document covering merchandise for various ultimate consignees, hereby authorize ____________ or order to make Customs entry for the above described merchandise. (Consignee(s))
(We) (I) ________________________, the consignee(s) in the above-mentioned document covering merchandise for various ultimate consignees, hereby authorize ____________ or order to make Customs entry for the above described merchandise.
(d) Verification of certificate. When a certificate on a separate document as described in paragraph (c) of this section is presented, it shall be compared with the supporting document and after being initialed by the ministerial clerk shall be returned to the consignee for transmittal to the person who will make entry. When an entry is received having executed in the space provided thereon an authority to make entry for a portion of a consolidated shipment, such authority shall be compared with the supporting document.
§ 141.55Single entry summary for shipments arriving under one transportation entry
Except for merchandise subject to a quantitative or tariff-rate quota, port directors are authorized to accept one entry summary for consumption or for warehouse for the entire quantity of merchandise covered by an entry for immediate transportation after the arrival of any part of the merchandise at the port of destination or at a place of deposit outside the port as may be authorized in accordance with § 18.11(c) of this chapter.
§ 141.56Single entry summary for multiple transportation entries consigned to the same consignee
(a) Requirement. CBP may accept, either at the port of entry or electronically one entry summary for consumption or for warehouse for merchandise covered by multiple entries for immediate transportation, subject to the requirements of § 142.17(a) of this chapter, provided the merchandise covered by each immediate transportation entry is released at the port of destination under a separate entry, in accordance with § 142.3 of this chapter.
(b) Limitation. A single entry summary for multiple transportation entries shall not be accepted for any merchandise listed in § 142.17(b) of this chapter.
(c) Information on the entry summary. Each entry for immediate transportation shall be identified separately on the entry summary by the immediate transportation entry number and the corresponding entry number.
§ 141.57Single entry for split shipments
(a) At election of importer of record. At the election of the importer of record, Customs may process a split shipment, pursuant to section 484(j)(2), Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1484(j)(2)), under a single entry, as prescribed under the procedures set forth in this section.
(b) Split shipment defined. A “split shipment”, for purposes of this section, means a shipment:
(1) Which may be accommodated on a single conveyance, and which is delivered to and accepted by a carrier in the exporting country under one bill of lading or waybill, and is thus intended by the importer of record to arrive in the United States as a single shipment;
(2) Which is thereafter divided by the carrier, acting on its own, into different portions which are transported and consigned to the same party in the United States; and
(3) Of which the first portion and all succeeding portions arrive at the same port of entry in the United States, as listed in the original bill of lading or waybill; and all the succeeding portions arrive at the port of entry within 10 calendar days of the date of the first portion. If any portion of the shipment arrives at a different port, such portion must be transported in-bond to the port of destination where entry of the shipment is made.
(c) Notification by importer of record. The importer of record must notify Customs, in writing, that the shipment has been split at the carrier's initiative, that the remainder of the shipment will arrive by subsequent conveyance(s), and that an election is being made to file a single entry for all portions. The required notification must be given as soon as the importer of record becomes aware that the shipment has been split, but in all cases notification must be made before the entry summary is filed.
(d) Entry or special permit for immediate delivery. In order to make a single entry for a split shipment or obtain a special permit for the release of a split shipment under immediate delivery, an importer of record may follow the procedure prescribed in paragraph (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, as applicable.
(1) Entry or special permit after arrival of entire shipment. An importer of record may file an entry at such time as all portions of the split shipment have arrived at the port of entry (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section). In the alternative, again after the arrival of all portions of a split shipment at the port of entry, the importer of record may instead file a special permit for immediate delivery provided that the merchandise is eligible for such a permit under § 142.21(a)-(f) and (h) of this chapter. In either case, the importer of record must file Customs Form (CF) 3461 or CF 3461 alternate (CF 3461 ALT) as appropriate, or electronic equivalent, with Customs. The entry or special permit must indicate the total number of pieces in, as well as the total value of, the entire shipment as reflected on the invoice(s) covering the shipment.
(2) Special permit prior to arrival of entire shipment. As provided in § 142.21(g) of this chapter, an importer of record may also file a special permit for immediate delivery after the arrival of the first portion of a split shipment at the port of entry (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section), but before the arrival of the entire shipment at such port, thus qualifying the split shipment for incremental release, under paragraph (e) of this section, as each portion of the shipment arrives at the port of entry (see paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section). In such case, a CF 3461 or CF 3461 ALT as appropriate, or electronic equivalent, must be filed with Customs. As each portion arrives at the port of entry, the importer of record must submit a copy of the CF 3461/CF 3461 ALT, or its electronic equivalent, adjusted to reflect the quantity of that particular portion relative to the quantity contained in the entire split shipment (see paragraph (b)(1) of this section); however, if both the carrier and the importer of record are automated, such adjustments may instead be made electronically to the CBP Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system. In the event that an entry has been pre-filed with Customs (see § 142.2(b) of this chapter), notification to Customs by the importer of record that a single entry will be filed for shipments released incrementally will serve as a request that the pre-filed entry be converted to an application for a special permit for immediate delivery (see § 142.21(g) of this chapter). The special permit must indicate the total number of pieces in, as well as the total value of, the entire shipment as reflected on the invoice(s) covering the shipment. Customs may limit the release of each portion of the split shipment upon arrival at the port of entry, as permitted under this paragraph, due to the need to examine the merchandise in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section.
(e) Release. To secure the separate release upon arrival of each portion of a split shipment at the port of destination under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the carrier responsible for initially splitting the shipment must present to Customs, either on a paper manifest or through an authorized electronic data interchange system, manifest information relating to the shipment that reflects exact information for each portion of the split shipment. The carrier responsible for splitting the shipment must notify other obligated entities (such as another carrier or freight forwarder) that have submitted electronic manifest information to Customs about the shipment that was split so that these parties can update their manifest information to Customs.
(f) Examination. Customs may require examination of any or all parts of the split shipment. For split shipments subject to the immediate delivery procedure of paragraph (d)(2) of this section, Customs reserves the right to deny incremental release should such an examination of the merchandise be necessary. The denial of incremental release does not preclude the use of the procedures specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(g) Entry summary—(1) Entry. For merchandise entered under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the importer of record must file an entry summary within 10 working days from the time of entry.
(2) Release for immediate delivery—(i) Release under paragraph (d)(1) of this section. For merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery pursuant to paragraph (d)(1) of this section, the importer of record must file the entry summary, which serves as both the entry and the entry summary, within 10 working days after the merchandise or any part of the merchandise is authorized for release under the special permit or, for quota class merchandise, within the quota period, whichever expires first (see § 142.23 of this chapter).
(ii) Release under paragraph (d)(2) of this section. For merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the importer of record must file the entry summary, which serves as both the entry and the entry summary, within 10 working days from the date of the first release of a portion of the split shipment. The filed entry summary must reflect all portions of the split shipment which have been released, to include quantity, value, correct classification and rate of duty. The entry summary cannot include any portions of the split shipment which have not been released.
(3) Duty payment. With the entry summary filed under paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2)(i) and (g)(2)(ii) of this section, the importer of record must attach estimated duties, taxes and fees applicable to the released merchandise. If the entry summary is filed electronically, the estimated duties, taxes and fees must be scheduled for payment at such time pursuant to the Automated Clearinghouse (see § 24.25 of this chapter).
(h) Classification. For purposes of section 484(j)(2), Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1484(j)(2)), the merchandise comprising the separate portions of a split shipment included on one entry will be classified as though imported together.
(i) Separate entry required—(1) Untimely arrival. The importer of record must enter separately those portions of a split shipment that do not arrive at the port of entry within 10 calendar days of the portion that arrived there first (see paragraph (b)(3) of this section).
(2) Different rates of duty for identically classified merchandise. An importer of record will be required to file a separate entry for any portion of a split shipment if necessary to preclude the application of different rates of duty on a split shipment entry for merchandise that is classifiable under the same subheading of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS).
(j) Requirement of importer of record to review entry and maintain evidence substantiating splitting of shipment—(1) Review of entry. The importer of record will be responsible for reviewing the total manifested quantity shown on the CF 3461/CF 3461 ALT, or electronic equivalent, in relation to all portions of the split shipment that arrived at the port of entry under paragraph (b)(3) of this section within the specified 10 calendar day period. At the conclusion of the specified 10 calendar day period, the importer of record must make any adjustments necessary to reflect the actual amount, value, correct classification and rate of duty of the merchandise that was released incrementally under the split shipment procedures. If all portions of the split shipment do not arrive within the required 10 calendar day period, the importer of record must file an additional entry or entries as appropriate to cover any remaining portions of the split shipment that subsequently arrive (see paragraph (i)(1) of this section).
(2) Evidence for splitting of shipment; recordkeeping. The importer of record must maintain sufficient documentary evidence to substantiate that the splitting of the shipment was done by the carrier acting on its own, and not at the request of the foreign shipper and/or the importer of record. This documentation should include a copy of the originating bill of lading or waybill under which the shipment was delivered to the carrier in the country of exportation or other supporting documentary evidence, such as a letter from the carrier confirming that the splitting of the shipment was done by the carrier on its own initiative. This documentary evidence as well as all other necessary records received or generated by or on behalf of the importer of record under this section must be maintained and produced, if requested, in accordance with part 163 of this chapter.
(k) Single entry limited; exclusions from single entry under incremental release procedure—(1) Quota/visa merchandise. Merchandise subject to quota and/or visa requirements is excluded from incremental release under the immediate delivery procedure set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and § 142.21(g) of this chapter. Additionally, if by splitting a shipment any portion of it is subject to quota, no portion of the split shipment may be released incrementally.
(2) Other merchandise. In addition, the port director may deny the use of the incremental release procedure set forth in paragraph (d)(2) of this section and § 142.21(g) of this chapter, as circumstances warrant.
(3) Limited single entry available. For merchandise described in paragraphs (k)(1) and (k)(2) of this section, that is excluded from the immediate delivery procedure of paragraph (d)(2) of this section and § 142.21(g) of this chapter, the importer of record may still file a single entry or special permit for immediate delivery under paragraph (d)(1) of this section covering the entire split shipment of such merchandise following, and to the extent of, its arrival within the required 10 calendar day period.
§ 141.58Single entry for separately arriving portions of unassembled or disassembled entities
(a) At election of importer of record. At the election of the importer of record, an unassembled or disassembled entity arriving on multiple conveyances as contemplated under section 484(j)(1), Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1484(j)(1)), may be processed as a single entry, as prescribed under the procedures set forth in this section.
(b) Unassembled or disassembled entities covered. An unassembled or disassembled entity for purposes of this section is an entity which:
(1) Cannot, due to its size or nature, be shipped on a single conveyance, and is thus imported in an unassembled or disassembled condition;
(2) Is ordered, invoiced and is classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), as a single entity and is consigned to one person in the United States;
(3) Is imported on more than one conveyance to the same port of entry in the United States; and
(4) Involves the first portion and all succeeding portions arriving at the same United States port of entry within either:
(i) 15 calendar days after the unlading of the first portion or arrival at the destination port if transported in bond for entities entered under the “hold all” method permitted in paragraph (d)(1) of this section; or
(ii) 10 calendar days after the release of the first portion under special permit procedures for entities released incrementally as permitted in paragraph (d)(2) of this section.
(c) Application by importer. The importer of record must apply to file a single entry covering an entity described in paragraph (b) of this section. Applications may be made either by appropriately annotating a Customs and Border Protection (CBP) Form 3461, CBP Form 3461 ALT, or electronic equivalent, or by submitting a letter to CBP. The required application must be made no later than 5 working days in advance of the arrival of the first conveyance. Justification for the need for more than one conveyance must be provided in the application, which must include an affirmative statement that the entity cannot, due to its size or nature, be shipped on one conveyance. A copy of the relevant invoice or purchase order, or electronic equivalent, must accompany the application, along with the proposed appropriate single tariff number under the HTSUS. The port director will notify the applicant of the approval or denial of the application within 3 working days of the receipt of the application.
(d) Entry or special permit for immediate delivery. In order to make a single entry for portions of an entity covered under this section that arrive at different times, an importer of record must follow the procedure prescribed in paragraphs (d)(1) or (d)(2) of this section, as applicable.
(1) Entry or special permit after arrival of all portions (Hold All). An importer may file an entry at such time as all portions of the entity have arrived at the same port of entry in the United States. Any portion that arrives at a different port must be transported in-bond to the destination port where entry will be made. In the alternative, the importer may file a special permit for immediate delivery after arrival of all portions of the entity provided that it is eligible for such a permit under § 142.21(a)-(d), (f) and (i) of this chapter.
(2) Special permit for immediate delivery after arrival of first portion (Incremental Release). As provided in § 142.21(h) of this chapter, an importer of record may file an application for a special permit for immediate delivery after the arrival of the first portion of the entity covered by paragraph (b) of this section, and its remaining portions may be released incrementally pursuant to the requirements set forth in paragraph (e) of this section. All portions of the shipment must timely arrive at the same port of entry in the United States. Any portion that arrives at a different port must be transported in-bond to the destination port where entry will be made.
(e) Release. If an importer wishes to secure release of an entity under paragraph (d)(1) of this section after the entity's arrival, the importer must file with CBP a CBP Form 3461 or CBP Form 3461 ALT, as appropriate, or electronic equivalent. To secure the separate release upon arrival of each portion of a shipment under paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the importer must file with CBP a CBP Form 3461 or CBP Form 3461 ALT, as appropriate, or electronic equivalent after arrival of the first portion. As each successive portion arrives, the importer must submit a copy of the originally submitted CBP Form 3461/CBP Form 3461 ALT, annotated to specifically identify that particular portion. The CBP Form 3461/CBP Form 3461 ALT must indicate the order of the arriving portion in relation to the entire shipment as reflected on the invoice (for example, third of six portions). If both the carrier and the importer are automated, such adjustments may be made electronically through the CBP Automated Commercial System (ACS). The release of each portion upon arrival as permitted under this paragraph may be restricted due to CBP's need to examine the merchandise in accordance with paragraph (f) of this section. In addition, the importer of record must present to CBP either on paper or through an authorized electronic equivalent, specific and detailed information supplementing the CBP Form 3461 or 3461 ALT, relating to the merchandise on each conveyance which reflects exact information for that portion of the ordered entity (for example, detailed packing lists).
(f) Examination. CBP may require examination of any or all portions of the entity. CBP reserves the right to deny the release of each portion of such shipments as they arrive (i.e., incremental release) should such an examination of the merchandise be necessary. The denial of incremental release does not preclude the use of the procedures specified in paragraph (d)(1) of this section.
(g) Entry summary. (1) For merchandise entered under paragraph (d)(1) of this section, an entry summary must be filed within 10 working days from the time of entry. For merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery, the entry summary, which serves as both the entry and entry summary, must be filed within 10 working days after the first portion of the entity is authorized for release under the special permit.
(2) For merchandise released under a special permit for immediate delivery pursuant to paragraph (d)(2) of this section, the entry summary, which serves as both the entry and the entry summary, must be filed within 10 working days from the date of the first release of a portion of the unassembled or disassembled entity. However, the entry/entry summary for the entity cannot be filed before the last portion of the entity which is to be included on the entry has arrived.
(3) Duty payment. At the time the entry summary is filed under paragraphs (g)(1) and (g)(2) of this section, estimated duties, taxes and fees must be attached. If the entry summary is filed electronically, the estimated duties, taxes and fees must be scheduled for payment at such time pursuant to the Automated Clearinghouse procedures (see 19 CFR 24.25).
(h) Classification. Except as provided in paragraph (j) of this section, for purposes of section 484(j)(1), Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1484(j)(1)), the merchandise comprising the separate portions of an entity covered by paragraph (b) of this section included on one entry will be classified as though imported together. Any spare parts accompanying a portion of an entity must be classified and entered separately.
(i) When separate entry and entry summary required. When all portions of an entity do not arrive at the port of entry within the time constraints of paragraphs (b)(4)(i) and (ii) of this section, as applicable, a separate entry and entry summary must be filed for each portion that has already arrived, and for each portion that subsequently will arrive on separate conveyances. The merchandise included on each separate entry shall be classified in its condition as imported. Each entry would reflect the quantities, values, classifications and rates of duty, as appropriate, of the various components conveyed in each shipment, and not the value or classification of the ordered single entity.
(j) Exclusions. Merchandise subject to quota and/or visa requirements is entirely excluded from the procedures set forth in this section. Also, CBP reserves the right for the port director to deny use of the incremental release procedure and only release the shipment in its entirety as circumstances warrant, such as in the case where a particular shipment has been selected for examination.
§ 141.61Completion of entry and entry summary documentation · full text and 5 exam questions
§ 141.62Place and time of filing
(a) Place. An application for immediate delivery and entry, entry summary, or withdrawal documentation shall be filed at the customhouse or at any other Customs location approved by the director of the port where the merchandise is to be or has been released.
(b) Time—(1) Normal business hours. (i) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, an application for immediate delivery or entry documentation shall be filed when the customhouse is open for the general transaction of business, or when Customs has established a regular tour of duty in accordance with § 101.6(f) of this chapter.
(ii) Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, entry summary or withdrawal documentation shall be filed when the customhouse is open for the general transaction of business, as provided in § 101.6 of this chapter.
(2) Overtime services—(i) Generally. Except as provided in paragraph (b)(2)(ii) of this section, an application for immediate delivery or entry documentation may be filed when the customhouse is not open for the general transaction of Customs business and no regular tour of duty has been established; and entry summary or withdrawal documentation may be filed when the customhouse is not open for the general transaction of business, if:
(A) The person desiring to transact business has applied for and received authorization for overtime services on a reimbursable basis, as provided for in § 24.16 of this chapter, and
(B) Overtime services of Customs officers are available.
(ii) Quota-class merchandise. Overtime shall not be authorized for the presentation of entry summary documentation which serves as both the entry and entry summary or withdrawal documentation, for quota-class merchandise without Headquarters authorization. If Headquarters authorization is granted, the time of delivery of the entry summary or withdrawal documentation, with the estimated duties attached, or without the estimated duties attached, if the entry/entry summary information and a scheduled statement date have been successfully received by Customs via the Automated Broker Interface, shall be the time of presentation for quota purposes. However, if an entry summary or withdrawal for quota-class merchandise is delivered inadvertently during overtime hours without Headquarters authorization, the time of presentation for quota purposes shall be the opening of business on the next business day.
§ 141.63Submission of entry summary documentation for preliminary review
(a) Before arrival of merchandise. Entry summary documentation may be submitted at the customhouse for preliminary review, without estimated duties attached, within such time before arrival of the merchandise as may be fixed by the Center director—
(1) If the entry summary documentation will be filed at time of entry to serve as both the entry and the entry summary, as provided in § 142.3(b) of this chapter, or
(2) In the case of quota-class merchandise, if the entry summary for consumption will be presented at time of entry, as provided in § 132.11a of this chapter. Estimated duties will not be accepted before arrival of the merchandise within the port limits.
(b) After arrival of merchandise. Entry summary documentation may be submitted at the customhouse for preliminary review, without estimated duties attached, within such time after arrival of quota-class merchandise as may be fixed by the Center director, if the entry summary for consumption will be presented at the opening of the quota period, as provided in § 132.12(a) of this chapter. Estimated duties will not be accepted before the opening of the quota period.
§ 141.64Review and correction of entry and entry summary documentation
Entry and entry summary documentation may be reviewed before acceptance to ensure that all entry and statistical requirements are complied with and that the indicated values and rates of duty appear to be correct. If any errors are found, the entry and the entry summary documentation shall not be considered to have been filed in proper form and shall be returned to the importer for correction.
§ 141.66Bond for missing documentation
Unless otherwise prescribed in these regulations, a bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 or § 113.69 of this chapter, as appropriate, may be given for the production of any required documentation which is not available at the time of entry. (See § 141.91 for the procedure applicable to incomplete or missing invoices.)
§ 141.67Recall of documentation
The importer may recall the entry and entry summary documentation at any time before the effective time of entry set forth in § 141.68. The entry shall be considered canceled, and documents shall be returned to the importer.
§ 141.68Time of entry · full text and 9 exam questions
§ 141.69Applicable rates of duty
The rates of duty applicable to merchandise shall be the rates in effect at time of entry, as specified in § 141.68, except as otherwise specifically provided for by Executive Order, and in the following cases:
(a) Warehouse entries. Merchandise entered for warehouse is dutiable at the rates in effect at the time withdrawal from warehouse for consumption is made in accordance with § 141.68(g).
(b) Merchandise entered for immediate transportation. Merchandise which is not subject to a quantitative or tariff-rate quota and which is covered by an entry for immediate transportation made at the port of original importation, if entered for consumption at the port designated by the consignee or his agent in such transportation entry without having been taken into custody by the port director for general order under section 490, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1490), shall be subject to the rates in effect when the immediate transportation entry was accepted at the port of original importation.
(c) Overcarried merchandise returned to port of entry. If merchandise which has been entered for consumption, but not yet released from Customs custody, is removed from the port or place of intended release because of overcarriage, inaccessibility, strike, act of God, or unforeseen contingency, and is returned to such port or place within 90 days after removal, such merchandise shall be subject to the rates in effect at the time of the original entry, provided the merchandise is identified with the original entry by the usual Customs examination and by any documentary evidence as to its movement between its removal and return which CBP may reasonably require. A new entry shall be required, unless the original entry has not been liquidated and the consignee at the time of original importation and at the time of return is the same person.
§ 141.81Invoice for each shipment
A commercial invoice shall be presented for each shipment of merchandise at the time the entry summary is filed, subject to the conditions set forth in these regulations. Except in the case of installment shipments provided for in § 141.82, an invoice shall not represent more than one distinct shipment of merchandise by one consignor to one consignee by one vessel or conveyance.
§ 141.82Invoice for installment shipments arriving within a period of 10 days
(a) One invoice sufficient. Installments of a shipment covered by a single order or contract and shipped from one consignor to one consignee may be included in one invoice if the installments arrive at the port of entry by any means of transportation within a period of not to exceed 10 consecutive days.
(b) Preparation of invoice. The invoice must be prepared in the manner provided for in this subpart and, when practicable, must show the quantities, values, and other invoice data with respect to each installment, the date of shipment of each installment, and the car number or other identification of the importing conveyance in which it was shipped.
(c) Pro forma invoice. If the required invoice is not filed with the first entry of an installment series, a pro forma invoice must be filed with each entry made before the required invoice is produced, and in accordance with § 141.91 a bond must be given, or charge against a continuous bond made, for the production of the required invoice. Liquidated damages will accrue in the case of each entry if more than 6 months expire without the production of an invoice for such entry.
(d) Informal entry. Any bona fide installment valued at not over $2,500 (except for articles valued in excess of $250 classified in Chapter 99, Subchapters III and IV. Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States) may be entered on an informal entry in accordance with subpart C of part 143 of this chapter, in which case such installment need not be considered in connection with invoice requirements for the balance of the series.
§ 141.83Type of invoice required
(a)-(b) [Reserved]
(c) Commercial invoice. (1) A commercial invoice shall be filed for each shipment of merchandise not exempted by paragraph (d) of this section. The commercial invoice shall be prepared in the manner customary in the trade, contain the information required by §§ 141.86 through 141.89, and substantiate the statistical information required by § 141.61(e) to be given on the entry, entry summary, or withdrawal documentation.
(2) CBP may accept a copy of a required commercial invoice in place of the original. A copy, other than a photostatic or photographic copy, shall contain a declaration by the foreign seller, the shipper, or the importer that it is a true copy.
(d) Commercial invoice not required. A commercial invoice shall not be required in connection with the filing of the entry, entry summary, or withdrawal documentation for merchandise listed in this paragraph. The importer, however, shall present any invoice, memorandum invoice, or bill pertaining to the merchandise which may be in his possession or available to him. If no invoice or bill is available, a pro forma (or substitute) invoice, as provided for in § 141.85, shall be filed, and shall contain information adequate for the examination of merchandise and the determination of duties, and information and documentation which verify the information required for statistical purposes by § 141.61(e). The merchandise subject to the foregoing requirements is as follows:
(1) [Reserved]
(2) Merchandise not intended for sale or any commercial use in its imported condition or any other form, and not brought in on commission for any person other than the importer.
(3)-(4) [Reserved]
(5) Merchandise returned to the United States after having been exported for repairs or alteration under subheadings 9802.00.40 and 9802.00.60, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (19 U.S.C. 1202).
(6) Merchandise shipped abroad, not delivered to the consignee, and returned to the United States.
(7) Merchandise exported from continuous Customs custody within 6 months after the date of entry.
(8) Merchandise consigned to, or entered in the name of, any agency of the U.S. Government.
(9) Merchandise for which an appraisement entry is accepted.
(10) Merchandise entered temporarily into the Customs territory of the United States under bond or for permanent exhibition under bond.
(11) Merchandise provided for in section 466, Tariff Act of 1930 (19 U.S.C. 1466), which pertain to certain equipment, repair parts, and supplies for vessels.
(12) Merchandise imported as supplies, stores, and equipment of the importing carrier and subsequently made subject to entry pursuant to section 446, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1446).
(13) Ballast (not including cargo used for ballast) landed from a vessel and delivered for consumption.
(14) Merchandise, whether privileged or nonprivileged, resulting from manipulation or manufacture in a foreign trade zone.
(15) Screenings contained in bulk importations of grain or seeds.
Editorial Note:
§ 141.84Photocopies of invoice for separate entries of same shipment
(a) Entries at one port. If by reason of accident or short shipment a portion of the quantity covered by one invoice fails to arrive, or if for any other reason only a portion of the quantity covered by one invoice is entered under one entry, a photocopy of the commercial invoice used in connection with the first entry, covering the quantity to be entered under another entry, may be used in connection with the subsequent entry of any portion of the merchandise not cleared under the first entry.
(b) Entries from foreign-trade zone at one port. A photocopy of the invoice filed with the first entry for consumption from a foreign-trade zone of a portion of the merchandise shown on the invoice will not be required for any subsequent entry for consumption from that zone at the same port of a portion of any merchandise covered by such invoice, if a pro forma invoice is filed and identifies the entry first made and the invoice then filed.
(c) Entries at different ports. When portions of a single shipment requiring a commercial invoice are entered at different ports, the importer may submit to the port director where the original invoice or latest photocopy of the original invoice is on file, two photocopies of the latest of such invoices to be certified as to merchandise previously received, and the official seal affixed thereto.
(d) Pro forma invoice. In a case in which a portion of the shipment is entered at the first port on a pro forma invoice, an entry at a subsequent port may be made by means of a new pro forma invoice which may cover only the merchandise then entered.
(e) Photocopy to satisfy bond for invoice. A properly certified photocopy of a commercial invoice presented within 6 months after the date of entry may be accepted to cancel the charges against the bond given for the production of the commercial invoice.
§ 141.85Pro forma invoice
A pro forma invoice submitted in accordance with any provision of this chapter shall be in substantially the following form:
Pro Forma Invoice Importers Statement Of Value Or The Price Paid In The Form Of An Invoice Not being in possession of a commercial seller's or shipper's invoice I request that you accept the statement of value or the price paid in the form of an invoice submitted below: Name of shipper address ________________________ Name of seller address ________________________;. Name of consignee address ________________________. Name of purchaser address ________________________. The merchandise (has) (has not) been purchased or agreed to be purchased by me. The prices, or in the case of consigned goods the values, given below are true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief, and are based upon: (Check basis with an “X”) (a) The price paid or agreed to be paid (__) as per order dated ____________. (b) Advices from exporter by letter (—) by cable (__) dated ____________. (c) Comparative values of shipments previously received (__) dated ____________. (d) Knowledge of the market in the country of exportation (__) ____________. (e) Knowledge of the market in the United States (if U.S. Value) (__) ____________. (f) Advice by CBP (__) ____________. (g) Other (__) ____________. A—Case marks numbers B—Manufacturer's item No. symbol or brand C—Quantities and full description D—Unit purchase price (currency) E—Total purchase price (currency) F—Unit foreign value G—Total foreign value Check which of the charges below are, and which are not included in the prices listed in columns “D” and “E”: Amount Included Not included Packing Cartage Inlandfreight Wharfage and loading abroad Lighterage Ocean freight U.S. duties Other charges (identify by name and amount) Total Country of origin ________________________. If any other invoice is received, I will immediately file it with an authorized CBP official. (Signature of person making invoice) (Title and firm name) Date
Pro Forma Invoice
Importers Statement Of Value Or The Price Paid In The Form Of An Invoice
Not being in possession of a commercial seller's or shipper's invoice I request that you accept the statement of value or the price paid in the form of an invoice submitted below:
address ________________________
address ________________________;.
address ________________________.
address ________________________.
The merchandise (has) (has not) been purchased or agreed to be purchased by me.
The prices, or in the case of consigned goods the values, given below are true and correct to the best of my knowledge and belief, and are based upon: (Check basis with an “X”)
(a) The price paid or agreed to be paid (__) as per order dated ____________.
(b) Advices from exporter by letter (—) by cable (__) dated ____________.
(c) Comparative values of shipments previously received (__) dated ____________.
(d) Knowledge of the market in the country of exportation (__) ____________.
(e) Knowledge of the market in the United States (if U.S. Value) (__) ____________.
(f) Advice by CBP (__) ____________.
(g) Other (__) ____________.
Country of origin ________________________.
If any other invoice is received, I will immediately file it with an authorized CBP official.
§ 141.86Contents of invoices and general requirements
(a) General information required on the invoice. Each invoice of imported merchandise, must set forth the following information:
(1) The port of entry to which the merchandise is destined;
(2) The time when, the place where, and the person by whom and the person to whom the merchandise is sold or agreed to be sold, or if to be imported otherwise than in pursuance of a purchase, the place from which shipped, the time when and the person to whom and the person by whom it is shipped;
(3) A detailed description of the merchandise, including the name by which each item is known, the grade or quality, and the marks, numbers, and symbols under which sold by the seller or manufacturer to the trade in the country of exportation, together with the marks and numbers of the packages in which the merchandise is packed;
(4) The quantities in the weights and measures of the country or place from which the merchandise is shipped, or in the weights and measures of the United States;
(5) The purchase price of each item in the currency of the purchase, if the merchandise is shipped in pursuance of a purchase or an agreement to purchase;
(6) If the merchandise is shipped otherwise than in pursuance of a purchase or an agreement to purchase, the value for each item, in the currency in which the transactions are usually made, or, in the absence of such value, the price in such currency that the manufacturer, seller, shipper, or owner would have received, or was willing to receive, for such merchandise if sold in the ordinary course of trade and in the usual wholesale quantities in the country of exportation;
(7) The kind of currency, whether gold, silver, or paper;
(8) All charges upon the merchandise itemized by name and amount, including freight, insurance, commission, cases, containers, coverings, and cost of packing; and if not included above, all charges, costs, and expenses incurred in bringing the merchandise from alongside the carrier at the port of exportation in the country of exportation and placing it alongside the carrier at the first United States port of entry. The cost of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation need not be itemized by amount if included in the invoice price, and so identified. Where the required information does not appear on the invoice as originally prepared, it must be shown on an attachment to the invoice;
(9) All rebates, drawbacks, and bounties, separately itemized, allowed upon the exportation of the merchandise;
(10) The country of origin of the merchandise; and,
(11) All goods or services furnished for the production of the merchandise (e.g., assists such as dies, molds, tools, engineering work) not included in the invoice price. However, goods or services furnished in the United States are excluded. Annual reports for goods and services, when approved by the Center director, will be accepted as proof that the goods or services were provided.
(b) Nonpurchased merchandise shipped by other than manufacturer. Each invoice of imported merchandise shipped to a person in the United States by a person other than the manufacturer and otherwise than pursuant to a purchase or agreement to purchase must set forth the time when, the place where, the person from whom such merchandise was purchased, and the price paid therefor in the currency of the purchase, stating whether gold, silver, or paper.
(c) Merchandise sold in transit. If the merchandise is sold on the documents while in transit from the port of exportation to the port of entry, the original invoice reflecting the transaction under which the merchandise actually began its journey to the United States, and the resale invoice or a statement of sale showing the price paid for each item by the purchaser, must be filed as part of the entry, entry summary, or withdrawal documentation. If the original invoice cannot be obtained, a pro forma invoice showing the values and transaction reflected by the original invoice must be filed together with the resale invoice or statement.
(d) Invoice to be in English. The invoice and all attachments must be in the English language, or must have attached thereto an accurate English translation containing adequate information for examination of the merchandise and determination of duties.
(e) Packing list. Each invoice must state in adequate detail what merchandise is contained in each individual package.
(f) Weights and measures. If the invoice or entry does not disclose the weight, gage, or measure of the merchandise which is necessary to ascertain duties, the consignee must pay the expense of weighing, gaging, or measuring prior to the release of the merchandise from CBP custody.
(g) Discounts. Each invoice must set forth in detail, for each class or kind of merchandise, every discount from list or other base price which has been or may be allowed in fixing each purchase price or value.
(h) Numbering of invoices and pages—(1) Invoices. Except when electronic invoice data are transmitted to CBP under the provisions of part 143 of this chapter, when more than one invoice is included in the same entry, each invoice with its attachments must be numbered consecutively by the importer on the bottom of the face of each page, beginning with No. 1.
(2) Pages. Except when electronic invoice data are transmitted to CBP under the provisions of part 143 of this chapter, if the invoice or invoices filed with one entry consist of more than two pages, each page must be numbered consecutively by the importer on the bottom of the face of each page, with the page numbering beginning with No. 1 for the first page of the first invoice and continuing in a single series of numbers through all the invoices and attachments included in one entry.
(3) Both invoices and pages. Except when electronic invoice data are transmitted to CBP under the provisions of part 143 of this chapter, both the invoice number and the page number must be shown at the bottom of each page when applicable. For example, an entry covering one invoice of one page and a second invoice of two pages must be paginated as follows:
Inv. 1, p. 1. Inv. 2, p. 2. Inv. 2, p. 3
(i) Information may be on invoice or attached thereto. Any information required on an invoice by any provision of this subpart may be set forth either on the invoice or on an attachment thereto.
(j) Name of responsible individual. Each invoice of imported merchandise must identify by name a responsible employee of the exporter, who has knowledge, or who can readily obtain knowledge, of the transaction.
§ 141.87Breakdown on component materials
Whenever the classification or appraisement of merchandise depends on the component materials, the invoice shall set forth a breakdown giving the value, weight, or other necessary measurement of each component material in sufficient detail to determine the correct duties.
§ 141.88Computed value
When the Center director determines that information as to computed value is necessary in the appraisement of any class or kind of merchandise, he shall so notify the importer, and thereafter invoices of such merchandise shall contain a verified statement by the manufacturer or producer of computed value as defined in § 402(e), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended by the Trade Agreements Act of 1979 (19 U.S.C. 1401a(e)).
§ 141.89Additional information for certain classes of merchandise
(a) Invoices for the following classes of merchandise, classifiable under the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), shall set forth the additional information specified: [75-42, 75-239, 78-53, 83-251, 84-149.]
Aluminum and alloys of aluminum classifiable under subheadings 7601.10.60, 7601.20.60, 7601.20.90, or 7602.00.00, HTSUS (T.D. 53092, 55977, 56143)—Statement of the percentages by weight of any metallic element contained in the article. Articles manufactured of textile materials, Coated or laminated with plastics or rubber, classifiable in Chapter(s) 39, 40, and 42—Include a description indicating whether the fabric is coated or laminated on both sides, on the exterior surface or on the interior surface. Bags manufactured of plastic sheeting and not of a reinforced or laminated construction, classified in Chapter 39 or in heading 4202—Indicate the gauge of the plastic sheeting. Ball or roller bearings classifiable under subheading 8482.10.50 through 8482.80.00, HTSUS (T.D. 68-306)—(1) Type of bearing (i.e., whether a ball or roller bearing); (2) If a roller bearing, whether a spherical, tapered, cylindrical, needled or other type; (3) Whether a combination bearing (i.e., a bearing containing both ball and roller bearings, etc.); and (4) If a ball bearing (not including ball bearing with integral shafts or parts of ball bearings), whether or not radial, the following: (a) outside diameter of each bearing; and (b) whether or not a radial bearing (the definition of radial bearing is, for Customs purposes, an antifriction bearing primarily designed to support a load perpendicular to shaft axis). Beads (T.D. 50088, 55977)—(1) The length of the string, if strung; (2) The size of the beads expressed in millimeters; (3) The material of which the beads are composed, i.e., ivory, glass, imitation pearl, etc. Bed linen and Bedspreads—Statement as to whether or not the article contains any embroidery, lace, braid, edging, trimming, piping or applique work. Chemicals—Furnish the use and Chemical Abstracts Service number of chemical compounds classified in Chapters 27, 28 and 29, HTSUS. Colors, dyes, stains and related products provided for under heading 3204, HTSUS—The following information is required: (1) Invoice name of product; (2) Trade name of product; (3) Identity and percent by weight of each component; (4) Color Index number (if none, so state); (5) Color Index generic name (if none so state); (6) Chemical Abstracts Service number of the active ingredient; (7) Class of merchandise (state whether acid type dye, basic dye, disperse dye, fluorescent brightener, soluble dye, vat dye, toner or other (describe); (8) Material to which applied (name the material for which the color, dye, or toner is primarily designed). Copper (T.D. 45878, 50158, 55977) articles classifiable under the provisions of Chapter 74, HTSUS—A statement of the weight of articles of copper, and a statement of percentage of copper content and all other elements—by weight—to articles classifiable according to copper content. Copper ores and concentrates (T.D. 45878, 50158, 55977) classifiable in heading 2603, and subheadings 2620.19.60, 2620.20.00, 2620.30.00, and heading 7401—Statement of the percentages by weight of the copper content and any other metallic elements. Cotton fabrics classifiable under the following HTSUS headings: 5208, 5209, 5210, 5211, and 5212—(1) Marks on shipping packages; (2) Numbers on shipping packages; (3) Customer's call number, if any; (4) Exact width of the merchandise; (5) Detailed description of the merchandise; trade name, if any; whether bleached, unbleached, printed, composed of yarns of different color, or dyed; if composed of cotton and other materials, state the percentage of each component material by weight; (6) Number of single threads per square centimeter (All ply yarns must be counted in accordance with the number of single threads contained in the yarn; to illustrate: a cloth containing 100 two-ply yarns in one square centimeter must be reported as 200 single threads); (7) Exact weight per square meter in grams; (8) Average yarn number use this formula: (9) Yarn size or sizes in the warp; (10) Yarn size or sizes in the filling; (11) Specify whether the yarns are combed or carded; (12) Number of colors or kinds (different yarn sizes or materials) in the filling; (13) Specify whether the fabric is napped or not napped; and (14) Specify the type of weave, for example, plain, twill, sateen, oxford, etc., and (15) Specify the type of machine on which woven: if with Jacquard (Jacq), if with Swivel (Swiv), if with Lappet (Lpt.), if with Dobby (Dobby). Cotton raw See § 151.82 of this chapter for additional information required on invoices. Cotton waste (T.D. 5044)—(1) The name by which the cotton waste is known, such as “cotton card strips”; “cotton comber waste”; “cotton lap waste”; “cotton sliver waste”; “cotton roving waste”; “cotton fly waste”; etc.; (2) Whether the length of the cotton staple forming any cotton card strips covered by the invoice were made is less than 3.016 centimeters (1 3/16 inches) or is 3.016 centimeters (1 3/16 inches) or more. Earthenware or crockeryware composed of a nonvitrified absorbent body (including white granite and semiporcelain earthenware and cream-colored ware, stoneware, and terra cotta, but not including common brown, gray, red, or yellow earthenware), embossed or plain; common salt-glazed stoneware; stoneware or earthenware crucibles; Rockingham earthenware; china, porcelain, or other vitrified wares, composed of a vitrified nonabsorbent body which, when broken, shows a vitrified, vitreous, semi-vitrified, or semivitreous fracture; and bisque or parian ware (T.D. 53236)—(1) If in sets, the kinds of articles in each set in the shipment and the quantity of each kind of article in each set in the shipment; (2) The exact maximum diameter, expressed in centimeters, of each size of all plates in the shipment; (3) The unit value for each style and size of plate, cup, saucer, or other separate piece in the shipment. Fish or fish livers (T.D. 50725, 49640, 55977) imported in airtight containers classifiable under Chapter 3, HTSUS—(1) Statement whether the articles contain an oil, fat, or grease which has had a separate existence as an oil, fat, or grease, (2) The name and quantity of any such oil, fat, or grease. Footwear, classifiable in headings 6401 through 6405 of the HTSUS— 1. Manufacturer's style number. 2. Importer's style and/or stock number. 3. Percent by area of external surface area of upper (excluding reinforcements and accessories) which is: Leather a. ________% Composition Leather b. ________% Rubber and/or plastics c. ________% Textile materials d. ________% Other (give separate e. ________% Percent for each f. ________% Type of material) 4. Percent by area of external Surface area of outersole (excluding reinforcements and accessories) which is: Leather a. ________% Composition Leather b. ________% Rubber and/or plastics c. ________% Textile materials d. ________% Other (give separate e. ________% Percent for each f. ________% Type of material) You may skip this section if you choose to answer all questions A through Z below. I. If 3(a) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions F, G, L, M, O, Q, R, S, and X. II. If 3(a) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions F, G, L, M, N, O, Q, S and X. III. If 3(a) plus 3(b) is larger than any single percent in 3 and if 4(d), 4(e) or 4(f) is larger than any other percent in 4, stop. IV. If 3(c) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) or 4(b) is larger than any other percent in 4, stop. V. If 3(c) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions B, E, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, T and W. VI. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) plus 4(b) is larger than any single percent in 4, answer questions C and D. VII. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions A, C, J, K, M, N, P and T. VIII. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(d) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions U, Y and Z. IX. If the article is made of paper, answer questions V and Z. If the article does not meet any of conditions I through IX above, answer all questions A through Z, below. A Percent of external surface area of upper (including leather reinforcements and accessories) Which is leather __________% B Percent by area of external surface area of upper (including all reinforcements and accessories). Which is rubber and/or plastics __________% C Percent by weight of rubber and/or plastics is __________% D Percent by weight of textile materials plus rubber and/or plastics is __________% E Is it waterproof? F Does it have a protective metal toe cap? G Will it cover the wearer's ankle bone? H Will it cover the wearer's knee cap? I [Reserved] J Is it designed to protect against water, oil, grease, or chemicals, or cold or inclement weather? K Is it a slip-on? L Is it a downhill or cross-country skiboot? M Is it serious sports footwear other than skiboots? (Chapter 64 subheading note defines sports footwear.) N Is it a tennis, basketball, gym, or training shoe or the like? O Is it made on a base or platform of wood? P Does it have open toes or open heels? Q Is it made by the (lipped insole) welt construction? R Is it made by the turned construction? S Is it worn exclusively by men, boys or youths? T Is it made by an exclusively adhesive construction? U Are the fibers of the upper, by weight, predominately vegetable fibers? V Is it disposable, i.e., intended for one-time use? W Is it a “Zori”? X Is the leather in the upper pigskin? Y Are the sole and upper made of woolfelt? Z Is there a line of demarcation between the outer sole and upper? The information requested above may be furnished on CF 5523 or other appropriate format by the exporter, manufacturer or shipper. Also, the following information must be furnished by the importer or his authorized agent if classification is claimed under one of the subheadings below: If subheading 6401.99.80, 6402.19.10, 6402.30.30, 6402.91.40, 6402.99.15, 6402.99.30, 6406.11.40, 6404.11.60, 6404.19.35, 6404.19.40, or 6404.19.60 is claimed: Does the shoe have a foxing or foxing-like band? If so, state its materials(s). Does the sole overlap the upper other than just at the front of the toe and/or at the back of the heel? Definitions for some of the terms used in questions A to Z above: For the purpose of this section, the following terms have the approximate definitions below. If either a more complete definition or a decision as to its application to a particular article is needed, the maker or importer of record (or the agent of either) should contact Customs prior to entry of the article. a. In an exclusively adhesive construction, all of the piece(s) of the bottom would separate from the upper or from each other if all adhesives, cements, and glues were dissolved. It includes shoes in which the pieces of the upper are stitched to each other, but not to any part of the bottom. Examples include: 1. Vulcanized construction footwear; 2. Simultaneous molded construction footwear; 3. Molded footwear in which the upper and the bottom are one piece of molded rubber or plastic, and 4. Footwear in which staples, rivets, stitching, or any of the methods above are either primary or just extra or auxiliary, even though adhesive is a major part of the reason the bottom will not separate from the upper. b. Composition leather is made by binding together leather fibers or small pieces of natural leather. It does not include imitation leathers not based on natural leather. c. Leather is the tanned skin of any animal from which the fur or hair has been removed. Tanned skins coated or laminated with rubber and/or plastics are “leather” only if the leather gives the material its essential character. d. A line of demarcation exists if one can indicate where the sole ends and the upper begins. For example, knit booties do not normally have a line of demarcation. e. Men's, boys' and youths' sizes cover footwear of American youths sizes 11 1/2 and larger for males, and do not include footwear commonly worn by both sexes. If more than 4% of the shoes sold in a given size will be worn by females, that size is “commonly worn by both sexes.” f. Footwear is designed to protect against water, oil or cold or inclement weather only if it is substantially more of a protection against those items than the usual shoes of that type. For example, leather oxfords will clearly keep one's feet warmer and drier than going barefoot, but they are not a protection in this sense. On the other hand the snow-jobber is the protective version of the nonprotective jogging shoe. g. Rubber and/or plastics includes any textile material visibly coated (or covered) externally with one or both of those materials. h. Slip-on includes: 1. A boot which must be pulled on. 2. Footwear with elastic cores which must be stretched to get it on, but not bootwear having a separate piece of elasticized fabric which forms a full circle around the foot or ankle. i. Sports footwear includes only: (1) Footwear which is designed for a sporting activity and has, or has provision for, the attachment of spikes, sprigs, cleats, stops, clips, bars or the like; (2) Skating boots (without skates attached), ski boots and cross-country ski footwear, wrestling boots, boxing boots and cycling shoes. j. Tennis shoes, basketball shoes, gym shoes, training shoes and the like covers athletic footwear other than sports footwear, whether or not principally used for such athletic games or purposes. k. Textile materials are made from cotton, other vegetable fibers, wool, hair, silk or man-made fibers. Note: Cork, wood carboard and leather are not textile materials. l. In turned construction, the upper is stitched to the leather sole wrong side out and the shoe is then turned right side out. m. Vegetable fibers include cotton, flax and ramie, but do not include either rayon or plaiting materials such as rattan or wood strips. n. Waterproof footwear includes footwear designed to protect against penetration by water or other liquids, whether or not such footwear is primarily designed for such purposes. o. Welt footwear means footwear constructed with a welt, which extends around the edge of the outer sole, and in which the welt and shoe upper are sewed to a lip on the surface of the insole, and the outer sole is sewed or cemented to the welt. p. A zori has an upper consisting only of straps or thongs of molded rubber or plastic. This upper is assembled to a foamed rubber or plastic sole by means of plugs. Fur products and furs (T.D. 53064)—(1) Name or names (as set forth in the Fur Products Name Guide (16 CFR 301.0) of the animal or animals that produced the fur, and such qualifying statements as may be required pursuant to § 7(c) of the Fur Products Labeling Act (15 U.S.C. 69e(c)); (2) A statement that the fur product contains or is composed of used fur, when such is the fact; (3) A statement that fur product contains or is composed of bleached, dyed, or otherwise artificially colored fur, when such is the fact; (4) A statement that the fur product is composed wholly or in substantial part of paws, tails, bellies, or waste fur, when such is the fact; (5) Name and address of the manufacturer of the fur product; (6) Name of the country of origin of the furs or those contained in the fur product. Glassware and other glass products (T.D. 53079, 55977)—Classifiable under Heading 7013 HTSUS—Statement of the separate value of each component article in the set. Gloves—State if the merchandise has a plastics or a rubber exterior. (See Chapter 59, Note 2(a)(3)). Grain or grain and screenings (T.D. 51284)—Statement on Customs invoices for cultivated grain or grain and screenings that no screenings are included with the grain, or, if there are screenings included, the percentage of the shipment which consists of screenings commingled with the principal grain. Handkerchiefs—(1) State the exact dimensions (length and width) of the merchandise; (2) If of cotton indicate whether the handkerchief is hemmed and whether it contains lace or embroidery. Hats or headgear—(1) If classifiable under subheading 6502.00.40 or 6502.00.60, HTSUS—Statement as to whether or not the article has been bleached or colored; (2) If classifiable under subheadings 6502.00.20 through 6502.00.60 or 6504.00.30 through 6504.00.90, HTSUS—Statement as to whether or not the article is sewed or not sewed, exclusive of any ornamentation or trimming. Hosiery—(1) Indicate whether a single yarn measures less than 67 decitex. (2) Indicate whether the hosiery is full length, knee length, or less than knee length. (3) Indicate whether it contains lace or net. Iron or steel classifiable in Chapter 72 or headings 7301 to 7307, HTSUS (T.D. 53092, 55977)—Statement of the percentages by weight or carbon and any metallic elements contained in the articles, in the form of a mill analysis or mill test certificate. Iron oxide (T.D. 49989, 50107)—For iron oxide to which a reduced rate of duty is applicable, a statement of the method of preparation of the oxide, together with the patent number, if any. Machines, equipment and apparatus—Chapters 84 and 85, HTSUS—A statement as to the use or method of operation of each type of machine. Machine parts (T.D. 51616)—Statement specifying the kind of machine for which the parts are intended, or if this is not known to the shipper, the kinds of machines for which the parts are suitable. Machine tools: (1) Headings 8456 through 8462—machine tools covered by these headings equipped with a CNC (Computer Numerical Control) or the facings (electrical interface) for a CNC must state so; (2) Headings 8458 through 8463—machine tools covered by these headings if used or rebuilt must state so; (3) Subheading 8456.30.10—EDM: (Electical Discharge Machines) if a Traveling Wire (Wire Cut) type must state so. Wire EDM's use a copper or brass wire for the electrode; (4) Subheading 8457.10.00—Machining Centers. Must state whether or not they have an ATC (Automatic Tool Changer). Vertical spindle maching centers with an ATC must also indicate the Y-travel; (5) Subheading 8458.11.0030 through 8458.11.0090—horizontal lathes: numerically controlled. Must indicate the rated HP (or KW rating) of the main spindle motor. Use the continuous rather than the 30 minute rating. Madeira embroideries (T.D. 49988)—(1) With respect to the materials used, furnish: (a) country of production; (b) width of the material in the piece; (c) name of the manufacturer; (d) kind of material, indicating manufacturer's quality number; (e) landed cost of the material used in each item; (f) date of the order; (g) date of the invoice; (h) invoice unit value in the currency of the purchase; (i) discount from purchase price allowed, if any; (2) With respect to the finished embroidered articles, furnish: (a) manufacturers's name, design number, and quality number; (b) importer's design number, if any; (c) finished size; (d) number of embroidery points per unit of quantity; (e) total for overhead and profit added in arriving at the price or value of the merchandise covered by the invoice. Motion-picture films—(1) Statement of footage, title, and subject matter of each film; (2) Declaration of shipper, cameraman, or other person with knowledge of the facts identifying the films with the invoice and stating that the basic films were to the best of his knowledge and belief exposed abroad and returned for use as newsreel; (3) Declaration of importer that he believes the films entered by him are the ones covered by the preceding declaration and that the films are intended for use as newsreel. Paper classifiable in Chapter 48—Invoices covering paper shall contain the following information, or will be accompanied by specification sheets containing such information: (1) Weight of paper in grams per square meter; (2) Thickness, in micrometers (microns); (3) If imported in rectangular sheets, length and width of sheets, in cm; (4) if imported in strips, or rolls, the width, in cm. In the case of rolls, the diameter of rolls in cm; (5) Whether the paper is coated or impregnated, and with what materials; (6) Weight of coating, in grams per square meter; (7) Percentage by weight of the total fiber content consisting of wood fibers obtained by a mechanical process, chemical sulfate or soda process, chemical sulfite process, or semi-chemical process, as appropriate; (8) Commercial designation, as “Writing”, “Cover”, “Drawing”, “Bristol”, “Newsprint”, etc.; (9) Ash content; (10) Color; (11) Glaze, or finish; (12) Mullen bursting strength, and Mullen index; (13) Stretch factor, in machine direction and in cross direction; (14) Tear and tensile readings; in machine direction, in cross direction, and in machine direction plus cross direction; (15) Identification of fibers as “hardwood” where appropriate; (16) Crush resistance; (17) Brightness; (18) Smoothness; (19) If bleached, whether bleached uniformly throughout the mass; (20) Whether embossed, perforated, creped or crinkled. Plastic plates, sheets, film, foil and strip of headings 3920 and 3921—(1) Statement as to whether the plastic is cellular or noncellular; (2) Specification of the type of plastic; (3) Indication of whether or not flexible and whether combined with textile or other material. Printed matter classificable in Chapter 49—Printed matter entered in the following headings shall have, on or with the invoices covering such matter, the following information: (1) Heading 4901—(a) Whether the books are: dictionaries, encyclopedias, textbooks, bound newspapers or journals or periodicals, directories, bibles or other prayer books, technical, scientific or professional books, art or pictorial books, or “other” books; (b) if “other” books, whether hardbound or paperbound; (c) if “other” books, paperbound, other than “rack size”: number of pages (excluding covers). (2) Heading 4902—(a) Whether the journal or periodical appears at least four times a week. If the journal or periodical appears other than at least four times a week, whether it is a newspaper supplement printed by a gravure process, is it a newspaper, business or professional journal or periodical, or other than these; (3) Heading 4904—Whether the printed or manuscript music is sheet music, not bound (except by stapling or folding); (4) Heading 4905—(a) Whether globes or not; (b) if not globes, whether in book form or not; (c) in any case, whether or not in relief; (5) Heading 4908—Whether or not vitrifiable; (6) Heading 4904—Whether post cards, greeting cards, or other; (7) Heading 4910—(a) Whether or not printed on paper by a lithographic process; (b) if printed on paper by a lithographic process, the thickness of the paper, in mm; (8) Subheading 4911.91—(a) Whether or not printed over 20 years at time of importation; (b) if printed not over 20 years at time of importation, whether suitable for use in the production of articles of heading 4901; (c) if not printed over 20 years at time of importation, and not suitable for use in the production of articles of heading 4901, whether the merchandise is lithographs on paper or paperboard; (d) if lithographs on paper or paperboard, under the terms of the immediately preceding description, thickness of the paper or paperboard, and whether or not posters; (e) in any case, whether or not posters; (f) in any case, whether or not photographic negatives or positives on transparent bases; (g) Subheading 4911.99—If not carnets, or parts thereof, in English or French, whether or not printed on paper in whole or in part by a lithographic process. Pulp classifiable in Chapter 47—(1) Invoices covering chemical woodpulp, dissolving grades, in Heading 4702 shall state the insoluble fraction (as a percentage) after 1 hour in a caustic soda solution containing 18% sodium hydroxide (NaOH) at 20 °C; (2) Subheading 4702.00.0020—Pulp entered under this subheading shall in addition contain on or with the invoice the ash content as a percentage to the third decimal point, by weight. Refrigeration equipment—(1) Refrigerator-freezers classifiable under subheading 8418.10.00 and (2) refrigerators classifiable under subheading 8418.21.00—(a) Statement as to whether they are compression or absorption type; (b) Statement of their refrigerated volume in liters. (3) Freezers classifiable under subheading 8418.30.00 and 8418.40.00—Statement as to whether they are chest or upright type. (4) Liquid chilling refrigerating units classifiable under subheadings 8418.69.0045 through 8418.69.0060—Statement as to whether they are centrifugal open-type, centrifugal hermetic-type, absorption-type or reciprocating type. Rolling mills—Subheadings 8455.30.0005 through 8455.30.0085. Rolls for rolling mills: Indicate the composition of the roll—gray iron, cast steel or other—and the weight of each roll. Rubber products of Chapter 40—(1) Statement as to whether combined with textile or other material; (2) Statement whether the rubber is cellular or noncellular, unvulcanized or vulcanized, and if vulcanized, whether hard rubber or other than hard rubber. Screenings or scalpings of grains or seeds (T.D. 51096)—(1) Whether the commodity is the product of a screening process; (2) If so, whether any cultivated grains have been added to such commodity; (3) If any such grains have been added, the kind and percentage of each. Textile fiber products (T.D. 55095)—(1) The constituent fiber or combination of fibers in the textile fiber product, designating with equal prominence each natural or manufactured fiber in the textile fiber product by its generic name in the order of predominance by the weight thereof if the weight of such fiber is 5 per centum or more of the total fiber weight of the product; (2) The percentage of each fiber present, by weight, in the total fiber content of the textile fiber product; (3) The name, or other identification issued and registered by the Federal Trade Commission, of the manufacturer of the product or one or more persons subject to § 3 of the Textile Fiber Products Identification Act (15 U.S.C. 70a) with respect to such product; (4) The name of the country where processed or manufactured. See also “Wearing Apparel” below. Tires and tubes for tires, of rubber or plastics—(1) Specify the kind of vehicle for which the tire is intended, i.e., airplane, bicycle, passenger car, on-the-highway light or heavy truck or bus, motorcycle; (2) If designed for tractors provided for in subheading 8701.90.10 or for agricultural or horticultural machinery or implements provided for in Chapter 84 or in subheading 8716.80.10, designate whether the tire is new, recapped, or used; pneumatic or solid; (3) Indicate whether the tube is designed for tires provided for in subheading 4011.91.10, 4011.99.10, 4012.10.20, or 4012.20.20. Tobacco (including tobacco in its natural state) (T.D. 44854, 45871)—(1) Specify in detail the character of the tobacco in each bale by giving (a) country and province of origin, (b) year of production, (c) grade or grades in each bale, (d) number of carrots or pounds of each grade if more than one grade is packed in a bale, (e) the time when, place where, and person from whom purchased, (f) price paid or to be paid for each bale or package, or price for the vega or lot if purchased in bulk, or if obtained otherwise than by purchase, state the actual market value per bale; (2) If an invoice covers or includes bales of tobacco which are part of a vega or lot purchased in bulk, the invoice must contain or be accompanied by a full description of the vega or lot purchased; or if such description has been furnished with a previous importation, the date and identity of such shipment; (3) Packages or bales containing only filler leaf shall be invoiced as filler; when containing filler and wrapper but not more than 35 percent of wrapper, they shall be invoiced as mixed; and when containing more than 35 percent of wrapper, they shall be invoiced as wrapper. Watches and watch movements classifiable in Chapter 91 of the HTSUS—For all commercial shipments of such articles, there shall be required to be shown on the invoice, or on a separate sheet attached to and constituting a part of the invoice, such information as will reflect with respect to each group, type, or model, the following: (A) For watches, a thorough description of the composition of the watch cases, the bracelets, bands or straps; the commercial description (ebauche caliber number, ligne size and number of jewels) of the movements contained in the watches; and the type of battery (manufacturer's name and reference number), if the watch is battery-operated; (B) For watch movements, the commercial description (ebauche caliber number, ligne size and number of jewels). If battery-operated, the type of battery (manufacturer's name and reference number); (C) The name of the manufacturer of the exported watch movements and the name of the country in which the movements were manufactured. Wearing apparel—(1) All invoices for textile wearing apparel should indicate a component material breakdown in percentages by weight for all component fibers present in the entire garment, as well as separate breakdowns of the fibers in the (outer) shell (exclusive of linings, cuffs, waistbands, collars and other trimmings) and in the lining. (2) For garments which are constructed of more than one component or material (combinations of knit and not knit fabric or combinations of knit and/or not knit fabric with leather, fur, plastic including vinyl, etc.), the invoice must show a fiber breakdown in percentages by weight for each separate textile material in the garment and a breakdown in percentages by weight for each nontextile material for the entire garment; (3) For woven garments—Indicate whether the fabric is yarn dyed and whether there are “two or more colors in the warp and/or filling”; (4) For all-white T-shirts and singlets—Indicate whether or not the garment contains pockets, trim, or embroidery; (5) For mufflers—State the exact dimensions (length and width) of the merchandise. Wood products—(1) Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or finger-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm (lumber), classifiable under Chapter 44, heading 4407, HTSUS, and wood continuously shaped along any of its edges or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or finger-jointed: Coniferous: Subheading 4409.10.90 and Nonconiferous: Subheading 4409.20.90, HTSUS, and dutiable on the basis of cubic meters— Quantity in cubic meters (m) before dressing; (2) Fiberboard of wood or other ligneous materials whether or not bonded with resins or other organic substances, under Chapter 44, Heading 4411, HTSUS, and classifiable according to its density—Density in grams per cubic centimeter (cm); (3) Plywood consisting solely of sheets of wood, classifiable under Chapter 44, Subheading 4412.11, 4412.12, and 4412.19, HTSUS, and classifiable according to the thickness of the wood sheets—Thickness of each ply in millimeter (mm). Wool and hair—See § 151.62 of this chapter for additional information required on invoices. Wool products, except carpets, rugs, mats, and upholsteries, and wool products made more than 20 years before importation (T.D. 50388, 51019)—(1) The percentage of the total fiber weight of the wool product, exclusive of ornamentation not exceeding 5 per centum of said total fiber weight, of (a) wool; (b) reprocessed wool; (c) reused wool; (d) each fiber other than wool if said percentage by weight of such fiber is 5 per centum or more; and (e) the aggregate of all other fibers; (2) the maximum percentage of the total weight of the wool product, of any nonfibrous loading, filling, or adulterating matter; and (3) the name of the manufacturer of the wool product, except when such product consists of mixed wastes, residues, and similar merchandise obtained from several suppliers or unknown sources. Woven fabric of man-made fibers in headings 5407, 5408, 5512, 5513, 5514, 5515, 5516— (1) State the exact width of the fabric; (2) Provide a detailed description of the merchandise, (trade name, if any); (3) Indicate whether bleached, unbleached, dyed, of yarns of different colors and/or printed; (4) If composed of more than one material, list percentage by weight in each; (5) Identify the man-made fibers as artificial or synthetic, filament or staple, and state whether the yarns are high tenacity. Specify the number of turns per meter in each yarn; (6) Specify yarn sizes in warp and filling; (7) Specify how the fabric is woven (plain weave, twill, sateen, dobby, jacquard, swivel, lappet, etc.); (8) Indicate the number of single threads per square centimeter in both warp and filling; (9) Supply the weight per square meter in grams; (10) Provide the average yarn number using this formula: (11) For spun yarns, specify whether combed or carded. (12) For filament yarns, specify whether textured or not textured. Yarns—(1) All yarn invoices should show: (a) Fiber content by weight; (b) whether single or plied; (c) whether or not put up for retail sale (See Section XI, Note 4, HTSUS); (d) whether or not intended for use as sewing thread; (2) If chief weight of silk—show whether spun or filament; (3) If chief weight of cotton—show: (a) Whether combed or uncombed (b) Metric number (mn) (c) Whether bleached and/or mercerized; (4) If chief weight of man-made fiber—show: (a) Whether filament, or spun, or a combination of filament and spun (b) If a combination of filament and spun—give percentage of filament and spun by weight. (5) If chief weight of filament man-made fiber—show: (a) Whether high tenacity (See Section XI, note 6 HTSUS). (b) Whether monofilament, multifilament or strip (c) Whether texturized (d) Yarn number in decitex (e) Number of turns per meter (f) For monofilaments—show cross sectional dimension in millimeters (g) For strips—show the width of the strip in millimeters (measure in folded or twisted condition if so imported).
Aluminum and alloys of aluminum classifiable under subheadings 7601.10.60, 7601.20.60, 7601.20.90, or 7602.00.00, HTSUS (T.D. 53092, 55977, 56143)—Statement of the percentages by weight of any metallic element contained in the article.
Articles manufactured of textile materials, Coated or laminated with plastics or rubber, classifiable in Chapter(s) 39, 40, and 42—Include a description indicating whether the fabric is coated or laminated on both sides, on the exterior surface or on the interior surface.
Bags manufactured of plastic sheeting and not of a reinforced or laminated construction, classified in Chapter 39 or in heading 4202—Indicate the gauge of the plastic sheeting.
Ball or roller bearings classifiable under subheading 8482.10.50 through 8482.80.00, HTSUS (T.D. 68-306)—(1) Type of bearing (i.e., whether a ball or roller bearing); (2) If a roller bearing, whether a spherical, tapered, cylindrical, needled or other type; (3) Whether a combination bearing (i.e., a bearing containing both ball and roller bearings, etc.); and (4) If a ball bearing (not including ball bearing with integral shafts or parts of ball bearings), whether or not radial, the following: (a) outside diameter of each bearing; and (b) whether or not a radial bearing (the definition of radial bearing is, for Customs purposes, an antifriction bearing primarily designed to support a load perpendicular to shaft axis).
Beads (T.D. 50088, 55977)—(1) The length of the string, if strung; (2) The size of the beads expressed in millimeters; (3) The material of which the beads are composed, i.e., ivory, glass, imitation pearl, etc.
Bed linen and Bedspreads—Statement as to whether or not the article contains any embroidery, lace, braid, edging, trimming, piping or applique work.
Chemicals—Furnish the use and Chemical Abstracts Service number of chemical compounds classified in Chapters 27, 28 and 29, HTSUS.
Colors, dyes, stains and related products provided for under heading 3204, HTSUS—The following information is required: (1) Invoice name of product; (2) Trade name of product; (3) Identity and percent by weight of each component; (4) Color Index number (if none, so state); (5) Color Index generic name (if none so state); (6) Chemical Abstracts Service number of the active ingredient; (7) Class of merchandise (state whether acid type dye, basic dye, disperse dye, fluorescent brightener, soluble dye, vat dye, toner or other (describe); (8) Material to which applied (name the material for which the color, dye, or toner is primarily designed).
Copper (T.D. 45878, 50158, 55977) articles classifiable under the provisions of Chapter 74, HTSUS—A statement of the weight of articles of copper, and a statement of percentage of copper content and all other elements—by weight—to articles classifiable according to copper content.
Copper ores and concentrates (T.D. 45878, 50158, 55977) classifiable in heading 2603, and subheadings 2620.19.60, 2620.20.00, 2620.30.00, and heading 7401—Statement of the percentages by weight of the copper content and any other metallic elements.
Cotton fabrics classifiable under the following HTSUS headings: 5208, 5209, 5210, 5211, and 5212—(1) Marks on shipping packages; (2) Numbers on shipping packages; (3) Customer's call number, if any; (4) Exact width of the merchandise; (5) Detailed description of the merchandise; trade name, if any; whether bleached, unbleached, printed, composed of yarns of different color, or dyed; if composed of cotton and other materials, state the percentage of each component material by weight; (6) Number of single threads per square centimeter (All ply yarns must be counted in accordance with the number of single threads contained in the yarn; to illustrate: a cloth containing 100 two-ply yarns in one square centimeter must be reported as 200 single threads); (7) Exact weight per square meter in grams; (8) Average yarn number use this formula:
(9) Yarn size or sizes in the warp; (10) Yarn size or sizes in the filling; (11) Specify whether the yarns are combed or carded; (12) Number of colors or kinds (different yarn sizes or materials) in the filling; (13) Specify whether the fabric is napped or not napped; and (14) Specify the type of weave, for example, plain, twill, sateen, oxford, etc., and (15) Specify the type of machine on which woven: if with Jacquard (Jacq), if with Swivel (Swiv), if with Lappet (Lpt.), if with Dobby (Dobby).
Cotton raw See § 151.82 of this chapter for additional information required on invoices.
Cotton waste (T.D. 5044)—(1) The name by which the cotton waste is known, such as “cotton card strips”; “cotton comber waste”; “cotton lap waste”; “cotton sliver waste”; “cotton roving waste”; “cotton fly waste”; etc.; (2) Whether the length of the cotton staple forming any cotton card strips covered by the invoice were made is less than 3.016 centimeters (1 3/16 inches) or is 3.016 centimeters (1 3/16 inches) or more.
Earthenware or crockeryware composed of a nonvitrified absorbent body (including white granite and semiporcelain earthenware and cream-colored ware, stoneware, and terra cotta, but not including common brown, gray, red, or yellow earthenware), embossed or plain; common salt-glazed stoneware; stoneware or earthenware crucibles; Rockingham earthenware; china, porcelain, or other vitrified wares, composed of a vitrified nonabsorbent body which, when broken, shows a vitrified, vitreous, semi-vitrified, or semivitreous fracture; and bisque or parian ware (T.D. 53236)—(1) If in sets, the kinds of articles in each set in the shipment and the quantity of each kind of article in each set in the shipment; (2) The exact maximum diameter, expressed in centimeters, of each size of all plates in the shipment; (3) The unit value for each style and size of plate, cup, saucer, or other separate piece in the shipment.
Fish or fish livers (T.D. 50725, 49640, 55977) imported in airtight containers classifiable under Chapter 3, HTSUS—(1) Statement whether the articles contain an oil, fat, or grease which has had a separate existence as an oil, fat, or grease, (2) The name and quantity of any such oil, fat, or grease.
Footwear, classifiable in headings 6401 through 6405 of the HTSUS—
1. Manufacturer's style number.
2. Importer's style and/or stock number.
3. Percent by area of external surface area of upper (excluding reinforcements and accessories) which is:
4. Percent by area of external Surface area of outersole (excluding reinforcements and accessories) which is:
You may skip this section if you choose to answer all questions A through Z below.
I. If 3(a) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions F, G, L, M, O, Q, R, S, and X.
II. If 3(a) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions F, G, L, M, N, O, Q, S and X.
III. If 3(a) plus 3(b) is larger than any single percent in 3 and if 4(d), 4(e) or 4(f) is larger than any other percent in 4, stop.
IV. If 3(c) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) or 4(b) is larger than any other percent in 4, stop.
V. If 3(c) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions B, E, F, G, H, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, T and W.
VI. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(a) plus 4(b) is larger than any single percent in 4, answer questions C and D.
VII. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(c) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions A, C, J, K, M, N, P and T.
VIII. If 3(d) is larger than any other percent in 3 and if 4(d) is larger than any other percent in 4, answer questions U, Y and Z.
IX. If the article is made of paper, answer questions V and Z.
If the article does not meet any of conditions I through IX above, answer all questions A through Z, below.
The information requested above may be furnished on CF 5523 or other appropriate format by the exporter, manufacturer or shipper.
Also, the following information must be furnished by the importer or his authorized agent if classification is claimed under one of the subheadings below:
If subheading 6401.99.80, 6402.19.10, 6402.30.30, 6402.91.40, 6402.99.15, 6402.99.30, 6406.11.40, 6404.11.60, 6404.19.35, 6404.19.40, or 6404.19.60 is claimed:
Does the shoe have a foxing or foxing-like band? If so, state its materials(s).
Does the sole overlap the upper other than just at the front of the toe and/or at the back of the heel?
Definitions for some of the terms used in questions A to Z above: For the purpose of this section, the following terms have the approximate definitions below. If either a more complete definition or a decision as to its application to a particular article is needed, the maker or importer of record (or the agent of either) should contact Customs prior to entry of the article.
a. In an exclusively adhesive construction, all of the piece(s) of the bottom would separate from the upper or from each other if all adhesives, cements, and glues were dissolved. It includes shoes in which the pieces of the upper are stitched to each other, but not to any part of the bottom. Examples include:
1. Vulcanized construction footwear;
2. Simultaneous molded construction footwear;
3. Molded footwear in which the upper and the bottom are one piece of molded rubber or plastic, and
4. Footwear in which staples, rivets, stitching, or any of the methods above are either primary or just extra or auxiliary, even though adhesive is a major part of the reason the bottom will not separate from the upper.
b. Composition leather is made by binding together leather fibers or small pieces of natural leather. It does not include imitation leathers not based on natural leather.
c. Leather is the tanned skin of any animal from which the fur or hair has been removed. Tanned skins coated or laminated with rubber and/or plastics are “leather” only if the leather gives the material its essential character.
d. A line of demarcation exists if one can indicate where the sole ends and the upper begins. For example, knit booties do not normally have a line of demarcation.
e. Men's, boys' and youths' sizes cover footwear of American youths sizes 11 1/2 and larger for males, and do not include footwear commonly worn by both sexes. If more than 4% of the shoes sold in a given size will be worn by females, that size is “commonly worn by both sexes.”
f. Footwear is designed to protect against water, oil or cold or inclement weather only if it is substantially more of a protection against those items than the usual shoes of that type. For example, leather oxfords will clearly keep one's feet warmer and drier than going barefoot, but they are not a protection in this sense. On the other hand the snow-jobber is the protective version of the nonprotective jogging shoe.
g. Rubber and/or plastics includes any textile material visibly coated (or covered) externally with one or both of those materials.
h. Slip-on includes:
1. A boot which must be pulled on.
2. Footwear with elastic cores which must be stretched to get it on, but not bootwear having a separate piece of elasticized fabric which forms a full circle around the foot or ankle.
i. Sports footwear includes only:
(1) Footwear which is designed for a sporting activity and has, or has provision for, the attachment of spikes, sprigs, cleats, stops, clips, bars or the like;
(2) Skating boots (without skates attached), ski boots and cross-country ski footwear, wrestling boots, boxing boots and cycling shoes.
j. Tennis shoes, basketball shoes, gym shoes, training shoes and the like covers athletic footwear other than sports footwear, whether or not principally used for such athletic games or purposes.
k. Textile materials are made from cotton, other vegetable fibers, wool, hair, silk or man-made fibers. Note: Cork, wood carboard and leather are not textile materials.
l. In turned construction, the upper is stitched to the leather sole wrong side out and the shoe is then turned right side out.
m. Vegetable fibers include cotton, flax and ramie, but do not include either rayon or plaiting materials such as rattan or wood strips.
n. Waterproof footwear includes footwear designed to protect against penetration by water or other liquids, whether or not such footwear is primarily designed for such purposes.
o. Welt footwear means footwear constructed with a welt, which extends around the edge of the outer sole, and in which the welt and shoe upper are sewed to a lip on the surface of the insole, and the outer sole is sewed or cemented to the welt.
p. A zori has an upper consisting only of straps or thongs of molded rubber or plastic. This upper is assembled to a foamed rubber or plastic sole by means of plugs.
Fur products and furs (T.D. 53064)—(1) Name or names (as set forth in the Fur Products Name Guide (16 CFR 301.0) of the animal or animals that produced the fur, and such qualifying statements as may be required pursuant to § 7(c) of the Fur Products Labeling Act (15 U.S.C. 69e(c)); (2) A statement that the fur product contains or is composed of used fur, when such is the fact; (3) A statement that fur product contains or is composed of bleached, dyed, or otherwise artificially colored fur, when such is the fact; (4) A statement that the fur product is composed wholly or in substantial part of paws, tails, bellies, or waste fur, when such is the fact; (5) Name and address of the manufacturer of the fur product; (6) Name of the country of origin of the furs or those contained in the fur product.
Glassware and other glass products (T.D. 53079, 55977)—Classifiable under Heading 7013 HTSUS—Statement of the separate value of each component article in the set.
Gloves—State if the merchandise has a plastics or a rubber exterior. (See Chapter 59, Note 2(a)(3)).
Grain or grain and screenings (T.D. 51284)—Statement on Customs invoices for cultivated grain or grain and screenings that no screenings are included with the grain, or, if there are screenings included, the percentage of the shipment which consists of screenings commingled with the principal grain.
Handkerchiefs—(1) State the exact dimensions (length and width) of the merchandise; (2) If of cotton indicate whether the handkerchief is hemmed and whether it contains lace or embroidery.
Hats or headgear—(1) If classifiable under subheading 6502.00.40 or 6502.00.60, HTSUS—Statement as to whether or not the article has been bleached or colored; (2) If classifiable under subheadings 6502.00.20 through 6502.00.60 or 6504.00.30 through 6504.00.90, HTSUS—Statement as to whether or not the article is sewed or not sewed, exclusive of any ornamentation or trimming.
Hosiery—(1) Indicate whether a single yarn measures less than 67 decitex. (2) Indicate whether the hosiery is full length, knee length, or less than knee length. (3) Indicate whether it contains lace or net.
Iron or steel classifiable in Chapter 72 or headings 7301 to 7307, HTSUS (T.D. 53092, 55977)—Statement of the percentages by weight or carbon and any metallic elements contained in the articles, in the form of a mill analysis or mill test certificate.
Iron oxide (T.D. 49989, 50107)—For iron oxide to which a reduced rate of duty is applicable, a statement of the method of preparation of the oxide, together with the patent number, if any.
Machines, equipment and apparatus—Chapters 84 and 85, HTSUS—A statement as to the use or method of operation of each type of machine.
Machine parts (T.D. 51616)—Statement specifying the kind of machine for which the parts are intended, or if this is not known to the shipper, the kinds of machines for which the parts are suitable.
Machine tools: (1) Headings 8456 through 8462—machine tools covered by these headings equipped with a CNC (Computer Numerical Control) or the facings (electrical interface) for a CNC must state so; (2) Headings 8458 through 8463—machine tools covered by these headings if used or rebuilt must state so; (3) Subheading 8456.30.10—EDM: (Electical Discharge Machines) if a Traveling Wire (Wire Cut) type must state so. Wire EDM's use a copper or brass wire for the electrode; (4) Subheading 8457.10.00—Machining Centers. Must state whether or not they have an ATC (Automatic Tool Changer). Vertical spindle maching centers with an ATC must also indicate the Y-travel; (5) Subheading 8458.11.0030 through 8458.11.0090—horizontal lathes: numerically controlled. Must indicate the rated HP (or KW rating) of the main spindle motor. Use the continuous rather than the 30 minute rating.
Madeira embroideries (T.D. 49988)—(1) With respect to the materials used, furnish: (a) country of production; (b) width of the material in the piece; (c) name of the manufacturer; (d) kind of material, indicating manufacturer's quality number; (e) landed cost of the material used in each item; (f) date of the order; (g) date of the invoice; (h) invoice unit value in the currency of the purchase; (i) discount from purchase price allowed, if any; (2) With respect to the finished embroidered articles, furnish: (a) manufacturers's name, design number, and quality number; (b) importer's design number, if any; (c) finished size; (d) number of embroidery points per unit of quantity; (e) total for overhead and profit added in arriving at the price or value of the merchandise covered by the invoice.
Motion-picture films—(1) Statement of footage, title, and subject matter of each film; (2) Declaration of shipper, cameraman, or other person with knowledge of the facts identifying the films with the invoice and stating that the basic films were to the best of his knowledge and belief exposed abroad and returned for use as newsreel; (3) Declaration of importer that he believes the films entered by him are the ones covered by the preceding declaration and that the films are intended for use as newsreel.
Paper classifiable in Chapter 48—Invoices covering paper shall contain the following information, or will be accompanied by specification sheets containing such information:
(1) Weight of paper in grams per square meter; (2) Thickness, in micrometers (microns); (3) If imported in rectangular sheets, length and width of sheets, in cm; (4) if imported in strips, or rolls, the width, in cm. In the case of rolls, the diameter of rolls in cm; (5) Whether the paper is coated or impregnated, and with what materials; (6) Weight of coating, in grams per square meter; (7) Percentage by weight of the total fiber content consisting of wood fibers obtained by a mechanical process, chemical sulfate or soda process, chemical sulfite process, or semi-chemical process, as appropriate; (8) Commercial designation, as “Writing”, “Cover”, “Drawing”, “Bristol”, “Newsprint”, etc.; (9) Ash content; (10) Color; (11) Glaze, or finish; (12) Mullen bursting strength, and Mullen index; (13) Stretch factor, in machine direction and in cross direction; (14) Tear and tensile readings; in machine direction, in cross direction, and in machine direction plus cross direction; (15) Identification of fibers as “hardwood” where appropriate; (16) Crush resistance; (17) Brightness; (18) Smoothness; (19) If bleached, whether bleached uniformly throughout the mass; (20) Whether embossed, perforated, creped or crinkled.
Plastic plates, sheets, film, foil and strip of headings 3920 and 3921—(1) Statement as to whether the plastic is cellular or noncellular; (2) Specification of the type of plastic; (3) Indication of whether or not flexible and whether combined with textile or other material.
Printed matter classificable in Chapter 49—Printed matter entered in the following headings shall have, on or with the invoices covering such matter, the following information: (1) Heading 4901—(a) Whether the books are: dictionaries, encyclopedias, textbooks, bound newspapers or journals or periodicals, directories, bibles or other prayer books, technical, scientific or professional books, art or pictorial books, or “other” books; (b) if “other” books, whether hardbound or paperbound; (c) if “other” books, paperbound, other than “rack size”: number of pages (excluding covers). (2) Heading 4902—(a) Whether the journal or periodical appears at least four times a week. If the journal or periodical appears other than at least four times a week, whether it is a newspaper supplement printed by a gravure process, is it a newspaper, business or professional journal or periodical, or other than these; (3) Heading 4904—Whether the printed or manuscript music is sheet music, not bound (except by stapling or folding); (4) Heading 4905—(a) Whether globes or not; (b) if not globes, whether in book form or not; (c) in any case, whether or not in relief; (5) Heading 4908—Whether or not vitrifiable; (6) Heading 4904—Whether post cards, greeting cards, or other; (7) Heading 4910—(a) Whether or not printed on paper by a lithographic process; (b) if printed on paper by a lithographic process, the thickness of the paper, in mm; (8) Subheading 4911.91—(a) Whether or not printed over 20 years at time of importation; (b) if printed not over 20 years at time of importation, whether suitable for use in the production of articles of heading 4901; (c) if not printed over 20 years at time of importation, and not suitable for use in the production of articles of heading 4901, whether the merchandise is lithographs on paper or paperboard; (d) if lithographs on paper or paperboard, under the terms of the immediately preceding description, thickness of the paper or paperboard, and whether or not posters; (e) in any case, whether or not posters; (f) in any case, whether or not photographic negatives or positives on transparent bases; (g) Subheading 4911.99—If not carnets, or parts thereof, in English or French, whether or not printed on paper in whole or in part by a lithographic process.
Pulp classifiable in Chapter 47—(1) Invoices covering chemical woodpulp, dissolving grades, in Heading 4702 shall state the insoluble fraction (as a percentage) after 1 hour in a caustic soda solution containing 18% sodium hydroxide (NaOH) at 20 °C; (2) Subheading 4702.00.0020—Pulp entered under this subheading shall in addition contain on or with the invoice the ash content as a percentage to the third decimal point, by weight.
Refrigeration equipment—(1) Refrigerator-freezers classifiable under subheading 8418.10.00 and (2) refrigerators classifiable under subheading 8418.21.00—(a) Statement as to whether they are compression or absorption type; (b) Statement of their refrigerated volume in liters. (3) Freezers classifiable under subheading 8418.30.00 and 8418.40.00—Statement as to whether they are chest or upright type. (4) Liquid chilling refrigerating units classifiable under subheadings 8418.69.0045 through 8418.69.0060—Statement as to whether they are centrifugal open-type, centrifugal hermetic-type, absorption-type or reciprocating type.
Rolling mills—Subheadings 8455.30.0005 through 8455.30.0085. Rolls for rolling mills: Indicate the composition of the roll—gray iron, cast steel or other—and the weight of each roll.
Rubber products of Chapter 40—(1) Statement as to whether combined with textile or other material; (2) Statement whether the rubber is cellular or noncellular, unvulcanized or vulcanized, and if vulcanized, whether hard rubber or other than hard rubber.
Screenings or scalpings of grains or seeds (T.D. 51096)—(1) Whether the commodity is the product of a screening process; (2) If so, whether any cultivated grains have been added to such commodity; (3) If any such grains have been added, the kind and percentage of each.
Textile fiber products (T.D. 55095)—(1) The constituent fiber or combination of fibers in the textile fiber product, designating with equal prominence each natural or manufactured fiber in the textile fiber product by its generic name in the order of predominance by the weight thereof if the weight of such fiber is 5 per centum or more of the total fiber weight of the product; (2) The percentage of each fiber present, by weight, in the total fiber content of the textile fiber product; (3) The name, or other identification issued and registered by the Federal Trade Commission, of the manufacturer of the product or one or more persons subject to § 3 of the Textile Fiber Products Identification Act (15 U.S.C. 70a) with respect to such product; (4) The name of the country where processed or manufactured. See also “Wearing Apparel” below.
Tires and tubes for tires, of rubber or plastics—(1) Specify the kind of vehicle for which the tire is intended, i.e., airplane, bicycle, passenger car, on-the-highway light or heavy truck or bus, motorcycle; (2) If designed for tractors provided for in subheading 8701.90.10 or for agricultural or horticultural machinery or implements provided for in Chapter 84 or in subheading 8716.80.10, designate whether the tire is new, recapped, or used; pneumatic or solid; (3) Indicate whether the tube is designed for tires provided for in subheading 4011.91.10, 4011.99.10, 4012.10.20, or 4012.20.20.
Tobacco (including tobacco in its natural state) (T.D. 44854, 45871)—(1) Specify in detail the character of the tobacco in each bale by giving (a) country and province of origin, (b) year of production, (c) grade or grades in each bale, (d) number of carrots or pounds of each grade if more than one grade is packed in a bale, (e) the time when, place where, and person from whom purchased, (f) price paid or to be paid for each bale or package, or price for the vega or lot if purchased in bulk, or if obtained otherwise than by purchase, state the actual market value per bale; (2) If an invoice covers or includes bales of tobacco which are part of a vega or lot purchased in bulk, the invoice must contain or be accompanied by a full description of the vega or lot purchased; or if such description has been furnished with a previous importation, the date and identity of such shipment; (3) Packages or bales containing only filler leaf shall be invoiced as filler; when containing filler and wrapper but not more than 35 percent of wrapper, they shall be invoiced as mixed; and when containing more than 35 percent of wrapper, they shall be invoiced as wrapper.
Watches and watch movements classifiable in Chapter 91 of the HTSUS—For all commercial shipments of such articles, there shall be required to be shown on the invoice, or on a separate sheet attached to and constituting a part of the invoice, such information as will reflect with respect to each group, type, or model, the following:
(A) For watches, a thorough description of the composition of the watch cases, the bracelets, bands or straps; the commercial description (ebauche caliber number, ligne size and number of jewels) of the movements contained in the watches; and the type of battery (manufacturer's name and reference number), if the watch is battery-operated;
(B) For watch movements, the commercial description (ebauche caliber number, ligne size and number of jewels). If battery-operated, the type of battery (manufacturer's name and reference number);
(C) The name of the manufacturer of the exported watch movements and the name of the country in which the movements were manufactured.
Wearing apparel—(1) All invoices for textile wearing apparel should indicate a component material breakdown in percentages by weight for all component fibers present in the entire garment, as well as separate breakdowns of the fibers in the (outer) shell (exclusive of linings, cuffs, waistbands, collars and other trimmings) and in the lining. (2) For garments which are constructed of more than one component or material (combinations of knit and not knit fabric or combinations of knit and/or not knit fabric with leather, fur, plastic including vinyl, etc.), the invoice must show a fiber breakdown in percentages by weight for each separate textile material in the garment and a breakdown in percentages by weight for each nontextile material for the entire garment; (3) For woven garments—Indicate whether the fabric is yarn dyed and whether there are “two or more colors in the warp and/or filling”; (4) For all-white T-shirts and singlets—Indicate whether or not the garment contains pockets, trim, or embroidery; (5) For mufflers—State the exact dimensions (length and width) of the merchandise.
Wood products—(1) Wood sawn or chipped lengthwise, sliced or peeled, whether or not planed, sanded or finger-jointed, of a thickness exceeding 6 mm (lumber), classifiable under Chapter 44, heading 4407, HTSUS, and wood continuously shaped along any of its edges or faces, whether or not planed, sanded or finger-jointed: Coniferous: Subheading 4409.10.90 and Nonconiferous: Subheading 4409.20.90, HTSUS, and dutiable on the basis of cubic meters—
Quantity in cubic meters (m) before dressing; (2) Fiberboard of wood or other ligneous materials whether or not bonded with resins or other organic substances, under Chapter 44, Heading 4411, HTSUS, and classifiable according to its density—Density in grams per cubic centimeter (cm); (3) Plywood consisting solely of sheets of wood, classifiable under Chapter 44, Subheading 4412.11, 4412.12, and 4412.19, HTSUS, and classifiable according to the thickness of the wood sheets—Thickness of each ply in millimeter (mm).
Wool and hair—See § 151.62 of this chapter for additional information required on invoices.
Wool products, except carpets, rugs, mats, and upholsteries, and wool products made more than 20 years before importation (T.D. 50388, 51019)—(1) The percentage of the total fiber weight of the wool product, exclusive of ornamentation not exceeding 5 per centum of said total fiber weight, of (a) wool; (b) reprocessed wool; (c) reused wool; (d) each fiber other than wool if said percentage by weight of such fiber is 5 per centum or more; and (e) the aggregate of all other fibers; (2) the maximum percentage of the total weight of the wool product, of any nonfibrous loading, filling, or adulterating matter; and (3) the name of the manufacturer of the wool product, except when such product consists of mixed wastes, residues, and similar merchandise obtained from several suppliers or unknown sources.
Woven fabric of man-made fibers in headings 5407, 5408, 5512, 5513, 5514, 5515, 5516—
(1) State the exact width of the fabric;
(2) Provide a detailed description of the merchandise, (trade name, if any);
(3) Indicate whether bleached, unbleached, dyed, of yarns of different colors and/or printed;
(4) If composed of more than one material, list percentage by weight in each;
(5) Identify the man-made fibers as artificial or synthetic, filament or staple, and state whether the yarns are high tenacity. Specify the number of turns per meter in each yarn;
(6) Specify yarn sizes in warp and filling;
(7) Specify how the fabric is woven (plain weave, twill, sateen, dobby, jacquard, swivel, lappet, etc.);
(8) Indicate the number of single threads per square centimeter in both warp and filling;
(9) Supply the weight per square meter in grams;
(10) Provide the average yarn number using this formula:
(11) For spun yarns, specify whether combed or carded.
(12) For filament yarns, specify whether textured or not textured.
Yarns—(1) All yarn invoices should show: (a) Fiber content by weight; (b) whether single or plied; (c) whether or not put up for retail sale (See Section XI, Note 4, HTSUS); (d) whether or not intended for use as sewing thread;
(2) If chief weight of silk—show whether spun or filament;
(3) If chief weight of cotton—show:
(a) Whether combed or uncombed
(b) Metric number (mn)
(c) Whether bleached and/or mercerized;
(4) If chief weight of man-made fiber—show:
(a) Whether filament, or spun, or a combination of filament and spun
(b) If a combination of filament and spun—give percentage of filament and spun by weight.
(5) If chief weight of filament man-made fiber—show:
(a) Whether high tenacity (See Section XI, note 6 HTSUS).
(b) Whether monofilament, multifilament or strip
(c) Whether texturized
(d) Yarn number in decitex
(e) Number of turns per meter
(f) For monofilaments—show cross sectional dimension in millimeters
(g) For strips—show the width of the strip in millimeters (measure in folded or twisted condition if so imported).
Editorial Note:
§ 141.90Notation of tariff classification and value on invoice
(a) [Reserved]
(b) Classification and rate of duty. The importer or customs broker must include on the invoice or with the invoice data the appropriate subheading under the provisions of the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (19 U.S.C. 1202) and the rate of duty for the merchandise being entered. Except when invoice line data are linked to an entry summary line and transmitted to CBP electronically under the provisions of part 143, that information must be noted by the importer or customs broker in the left-hand portion of the invoice, next to the articles to which they apply.
(c) Value. The importer must show in clear detail on the invoice or on an attached statement the computation of all deductions from total invoice value, such as nondutiable charges, and all additions to invoice value which have been made to arrive at the aggregate entered value. In addition, the entered unit value for each article on the invoice must be shown where it is different from the invoiced unit value.
(d) Importer's notations in blue or black ink. Except when invoice line data are linked to an entry summary line and transmitted to CBP electronically under the provisions of part 143, all notations made on the invoice by the importer or customs broker must be in blue or black ink.
§ 141.91Entry without required invoice
If a required invoice is not available in proper form at the time the entry or entry summary documentation is filed and a waiver is not granted in accordance with § 141.92, the entry or entry summary documentation shall be accepted only under the following conditions:
(a) CBP is satisfied that the failure to produce the required invoice is due to a cause beyond the control of the importer;
(b) The importer files:
(1) A written declaration that he is unable to produce such invoice, and
(2) Any seller's or shipper's invoices available to him or, if none are available, a pro forma invoice in accordance with § 141.85;
(c) The invoices and other documents contain information adequate for the examination of merchandise, the determination of estimated duties, if any, and statistical purposes; and
(d) The importer files a bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter, in an amount equal to one and one-half the invoice value of the merchandise, for the production of the required invoice, which must be produced within 120 days after the date of the filing of the entry summary (or the entry, if there is no entry summary) documentation, unless the invoice is needed for statistical purposes. If needed for statistical purposes, the invoice shall be produced within 50 days after the date of the entry summary (or the entry, if there is no entry summary) is required to be filed, unless a reasonable extension of time is granted by the Center director for good cause shown.
§ 141.92Waiver of invoice requirements
(a) When waiver may be granted. CBP may waive production of a required invoice when he is satisfied that either:
(1) The importer cannot by reason of conditions beyond his control furnish a complete and accurate invoice; or
(2) The examination of merchandise, final determination of duties, and collection of statistics can be effected properly without the production of the required invoice.
(b) Documents to be filed by importer. As a condition to the granting of a waiver, the importer shall file the following documents with the entry:
(1) Any invoice or invoices received from the seller or shipper;
(2) A statement pointing out in exact detail any inaccuracies, omissions, or other defects in such invoice or invoices;
(3) An executed pro forma invoice in accordance with § 141.85; and
(4) Any other information required by the Center director for either appraisement or classification of the merchandise, or for statistical purposes.
(c) Satisfaction of bond liability. The liability under the bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter for the production of a correct invoice shall be deemed satisfied when a waiver has been granted pursuant to this section.
§ 141.101Time of deposit
Estimated duties shall either be deposited with the Customs officer designated to receive the duties at the time of the filing of the entry documentation or the entry summary documentation when it serves as both the entry and entry summary, or be transmitted to Customs according to the statement processing method as described in § 24.25 of this chapter, except in the following cases:
(a) Merchandise released under entry documentation. In the case of merchandise released under the entry documentation listed in § 142.3 of this chapter before filing of the entry summary, deposit of estimated duties shall be made at the time the entry summary is filed unless the merchandise is entered for warehouse. If the merchandise is entered for warehouse, estimated duties shall be deposited in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) Warehouse entry. In the case of merchandise entered for warehouse, deposit of estimated duties shall be made at the time the withdrawal for consumption is presented.
(c) Informal mail entry. In the case of merchandise entered under an informal mail entry, duties shall be paid to the postal employee at the time he delivers the merchandise to the addressee (see part 145 of this chapter).
(d) Appraisement entries. In the case of merchandise entered under an appraisement entry, deposit of estimated duties shall be made immediately after notification by the appropriate Customs officer of the amount of duties due.
(e) Entry for transportation or under bond. No deposit of estimated duties is applicable in the case of merchandise entered for transportation or temporarily imported under bond, entered for permanent exhibition under bond, entered for a trade fair under bond or entered under bond for similar reasons.
§ 141.102When deposit of estimated duties, estimated taxes, or both not required
Entry or withdrawal for consumption in the following situations may be made without depositing the estimated Customs duties, or estimated taxes, or both, as specifically noted:
(a) Cigars and cigarettes. A qualified dealer or manufacturer may enter or withdraw for consumption cigars, cigarettes, and cigarette papers and tubes without payment of internal revenue tax in accordance with § 11.2a of this chapter.
(b) Bulk distilled spirits transferred to the bonded premises of a distilled spirits plant. An importer may transfer distilled spirits in bulk to the bonded premises of a distilled spirits plant, without the payment of tax, under the provisions of section 5232(a), Internal Revenue Code of 1986 (26 U.S.C. 5232(a)), and the regulations of the Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco and Firearms (27 CFR part 251).
(c) Deferral of payment of taxes on alcoholic beverages. An importer may pay on a semimonthly basis the estimated internal revenue taxes on all the alcoholic beverages entered or withdrawn for consumption during that period, under the procedures set forth in § 24.4 of this chapter.
(d) Government entries. If a shipment is entered or withdrawn for consumption by a U.S. Government department or agency, or an authorized representative thereof, no deposit of estimated Customs duties or taxes shall be required if a stipulation is furnished in lieu of the bond. The proper department or agency will then be billed after liquidation of the entry for any duties or charges due. The stipulation shall be in the following form:
I, ____________________________________ (title), a duly authorized representative of the (name of U.S. Government department or agency) stipulate and agree on behalf of such department or agency that all applicable provisions of the Tariff Act of 1930, as amended, and the regulations thereunder, and of all other laws and regulations, relating to (type of entry) entry No. ____________, of ____________ (date) will be observed and complied with in all respects. (Signature)
entry No. ____________, of ____________ (date) will be observed and complied with in all respects.
§ 141.103Amount to be deposited
Estimated duties shall be deposited in an amount to sufficiently cover the prospective duties on each item being entered or withdrawn.
§ 141.104Computation of duties
In computing estimated duties, fractional parts of dollars and quantities shall be rounded off in accordance with § 159.3 of this chapter.
§ 141.105Voluntary deposit of additional duties
If either the importer of record or the actual owner whose declaration and superseding bond have been filed in accordance with § 141.20 desires, he may estimate, on the basis of information contained in the entry papers or obtainable from the Center director, the probable amount of unpaid duties which will be found due on the entire entry and deposit them in whole or in part with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically. The deposit shall be tendered in writing in the following form in the number of copies required for the purposes of local administration, and an official receipt shall be given for the deposit:
Date ________________________. To CBP, ____________________________________. Tender is hereby voluntarily made of $____________ as a supplemental deposit of estimated duties and taxes on ____________ entry No. ____________, dated ____________, in the name of ____________. Please provide an official receipt. (Importer of record) or (actual owner) (Street address) (City) (State)
____________________________________.
Tender is hereby voluntarily made of $____________ as a supplemental deposit of estimated duties and taxes on ____________ entry No. ____________, dated ____________, in the name of ____________. Please provide an official receipt.
§ 141.111Carrier's release order
(a) When required. Except where release is made directly to the carrier in accordance with § 141.11(b), no merchandise shall be released from Customs custody until a release order has been executed by the carrier, or, in the case of merchandise in a bonded warehouse, by the warehouse proprietor.
(b) Form of release. The release order may be executed on any of the following documents:
(1) [Reserved]
(2) The official entry form;
(3) A combined carrier's certificate and release order issued in accordance with § 141.11(a)(4); or
(4) If a certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill is used for entry purposes in accordance with § 141.11(a)(3), the carrier's release order may be endorsed thereon in substantially the following form:
In accordance with the provisions of section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, authority is hereby given to release the articles covered by this certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill to: ________________________.
In accordance with the provisions of section 484(j), Tariff Act of 1930, authority is hereby given to release the articles covered by this certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill to: ________________________.
(c) Blanket release order. Merchandise may be released to the person named in the bill of lading or air waybill in the absence of a specific release order from the carrier, if the carrier concerned has filed a blanket order authorizing release to the owner or consignee in such cases. A carrier's certificate in the form shown in § 141.11(a)(4), may be modified and executed to make it a blanket release order for the shipments covered by a blanket carrier's release order under § 141.11(a)(5).
(d) Qualified release order. In the case of merchandise which is entered for warehousing, for transportation in bond, for exportation, or is to be admitted to a foreign trade zone, the release order may be qualified as follows:
(1) “For transfer to the bonded warehouse designated in the warehouse entry,” if the merchandise is entered for warehousing;
(2) “For transfer to the bonded carrier designated in the transportation entry,” if the merchandise is entered for transportation in bond;
(3) “For transfer to the carrier designated in the export entry,” if the merchandise is entered for exportation; or
(4) “For transfer to the foreign trade zone designated in Customs Form 214,” if the merchandise is to be admitted to a foreign trade zone.
§ 141.112Liens for freight, charges, or contribution in general average
(a) Definitions. The following are general definitions for the purposes of this section:
(1) Freight. “Freight” means the charges for the transportation of the goods from the place of shipment in the foreign country to the final destination in the United States.
(2) Charges. “Charges” means the charges due to or assumed by the claimant of the lien which are incident to the shipment and forwarding of the goods to the destination in the United States, but does not include the purchase price, whether advanced or to be collected, nor other claims not connected with the transportation of the goods.
(3) General average. “General average” means the liability to contribution of the owners of a cargo which arises when a sacrifice of a part of such cargo has been made for the preservation of the residue or when money is expended to preserve the whole. It only arises from actions impelled by necessity.
(4) Claimant. “Claimant” means a carrier, customs broker or the successors or assigns of either.
(b) Notice of lien. A notice of lien for freight, charges, or contribution in general average pursuant to section 564, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1564), shall be filed with the port director on Customs Form 3485, signed by the authorized agent of the claimant and certified by him.
(c) Preliminary notice of lien for contribution in general average. When the cargo of a vessel is subject to contribution in general average, a preliminary notice thereof may be filed with the port director and individual notices of lien filed thereafter. Upon receipt of a preliminary notice, the port director shall withhold release of any merchandise imported in the vessel for 2 days (exclusive of Sunday and holidays) after such merchandise is taken into Customs custody, unless proof is submitted that the claim for contribution in general average has been paid or secured.
(d) Merchandise entered for immediate transportation. A notice of lien upon merchandise entered for immediate transportation shall be filed by the claimant with the port director at the destination.
(e) Limitations on acceptance of notice of lien. A notice of lien shall be rejected and returned with the reason for rejection noted thereon if it is filed after any of the following actions have been taken concerning the merchandise:
(1) Release from Customs custody;
(2) Forfeiture under any provision of law;
(3) Sale as unclaimed or abandoned merchandise under section 491 or 559, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1491 or 1559); or
(4) Receipt and acceptance of a notice of abandonment to the Government under section 506(1) or 563(b), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1506(1) or 1563(b)).
(f) Forfeited or abandoned merchandise. The acceptance of a notice of lien shall not in any manner affect the order of disposition and accounting for the proceeds of sales of forfeited and abandoned property provided for in Subpart D of part 127 and §§ 158.44 and 162.51 of this chapter.
(g) Bond may be required. When any doubt exists as to the validity of a lien filed with the port director, he may require a bond on Customs Form 301, containing the bond conditions set forth in § 113.62 of this chapter, to hold him harmless from any liability which may result from withholding the release of the merchandise.
(h) Satisfaction of lien. The port director shall not adjudicate any dispute respecting the validity of any lien, but when the amount of such lien depends upon the quantity or weight of merchandise actually landed, the port director shall hold the lien satisfied upon the payment of an amount computed upon the basis of the official Customs report of quantity and weight. In all other cases, proof that the lien has been satisfied or discharged shall consist of a written release or receipt signed by the claimant and filed with the port director, showing payment of the claim in full.
§ 141.113Recall of merchandise released from Customs and Border Protection custody
(a)(1) Merchandise not legally marked. Certain merchandise is required to be marked or labeled pursuant to the following provisions:
(i) Section 304, Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 U.S.C. 1304), pertaining to marking with country of origin;
(ii) Textile Fiber Products Identification Act (15 U.S.C. 70);
(iii) Wool Products Labeling Act (15 U.S.C. 68);
(iv) Fur Products Labeling Act (15 U.S.C. 69); and
(v) Chapter 91, Additional U.S. Note 4, Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS), pertaining to special marking for watch and clock movements, cases, and dials.
(2) If such merchandise is found after release to be not legally marked, the Center director may demand its return to CBP custody for the purpose of requiring it to be properly marked or labeled. The demand for marking or labeling shall be made not later than 30 days after the date of entry in the case of merchandise examined in public stores, and places of arrival, such as docks, wharfs, or piers. Demand may be made no later than 30 days after the date of examination in the case of merchandise examined at the importer's premises or such other appropriate places as determined by the port director or Center director.
(b) Textiles and textile products. For purposes of determining whether the country of origin of textiles and textile products subject to the provisions of § 102.21 or § 102.22 of this chapter, as applicable, has been accurately represented to CBP, the release from CBP custody of any such textile or textile product shall be deemed conditional during the 180-day period following the date of release. If the Center director finds during the conditional release period that a textile or textile product is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States because the country of origin of the textile or textile product was not accurately represented to CBP, he shall promptly demand its return to CBP custody. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (h) of this section and § 113.62(n)(1) of this chapter, a failure to comply with a demand for return to CBP custody made under this paragraph shall result in the assessment of liquidated damages equal to the value of the merchandise involved.
(c) Food, drugs, devices, cosmetics, and tobacco products—(1) Conditional release period. For purposes of determining the admissibility of any food, drug, device, cosmetic, or tobacco product imported pursuant to section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 381(a)), as amended, the release from CBP custody of any such product will be deemed conditional. Unless extended in accordance with paragraph (c)(2) of this section, the conditional release period will terminate upon the earliest occurring of the following events:
(i) The date that FDA issues a notice of refusal of admission;
(ii) The date that FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed; or
(iii) Upon the end of the 30-day period following the date of release.
(2) Extension of conditional release period. The conditional release period provided under this paragraph (c) may be extended. The FDA must issue a written or electronic notice of sampling, detention, or other FDA action to the bond principal (i.e., importer of record) within 30 days of the release of the merchandise in order for the extension of the conditional release period to be valid.
(3) Issuance of a redelivery notice. If FDA refuses admission of a food, drug, device, cosmetic, or tobacco product into the United States, or if any notice of sampling or other request is not complied with, FDA will communicate that fact to the Center director. An authorized CBP official will demand the redelivery of the product to CBP custody. CBP will issue a notice of redelivery within 30 days from the date the product was refused admission by the FDA or from the date FDA determined the noncompliance with a notice of sampling or other request. The demand for redelivery may be made contemporaneously with the notice of refusal issued by the FDA. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (i) of this section, a failure to comply with a demand for redelivery made under this paragraph (c) will result in the assessment of liquidated damages equal to three times the value of the merchandise involved unless the port director has prescribed a bond equal to the domestic value of the merchandise pursuant to § 12.3(b) of this Chapter.
(d) Other merchandise not entitled to admission. If at any time after entry an authorized CBP official finds that any merchandise contained in an importation is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States for any reason not enumerated in paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of this section, an authorized CBP official shall promptly demand the return to CBP custody of any such merchandise which has been released.
(e) Request for samples or additional examination packages not complied with by importer. If the importer has not promptly complied with a request for samples or additional examination packages made by an authorized CBP official pursuant to § 151.11 of this chapter, an authorized CBP official may demand the return of the necessary merchandise to CBP custody.
(f) Demand to importer of record or actual owner. A demand for the return of merchandise to CBP custody shall be made on the importer of record, except that it shall be made on the actual owner if an actual owner's declaration and superseding bond have been filed in accordance with § 141.20 before the date of the demand.
(g) Form of demand. A demand for the return of merchandise to CBP custody shall be made on Customs Form 4647, or its electronic equivalent, or other appropriate form, or by letter. One copy, with the date of mailing or delivery noted thereon, shall be retained by an authorized CBP official and made part of the entry record.
(h) Time limitation. A demand for the return of merchandise to CBP custody shall not be made after the liquidation of the entry covering such merchandise has become final.
(i) Demand not complied with. When the demand of an authorized CBP official for return of merchandise to CBP custody is not complied with, liquidated damages shall be assessed, except in the case of merchandise entered under chapter 98, subchapter XIII, HTSUS (19 U.S.C. 1202), in an amount equal to the value of the merchandise not returned or three times the value of the merchandise not returned if the merchandise is restricted or prohibited merchandise or alcoholic beverages, as determined at the time of entry. The amount of liquidated damages to be assessed on merchandise entered under chapter 98, subchapter XIII, HTSUS is set forth in § 10.39(d)(3) of this chapter.
Editorial Note:
Other exam questions from Part 141
April 2019, Q16. Which answer below identifies all circumstances whereby a U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) conditional release is considered terminated for food, drugs, devices, cosmetics, and tobacco products imported pursuant to section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act [21 U.S.C. 381(a)], as amended?
- AThe conditional release has not been extended in accordance with 19 C.F.R. 141.113(c)(2) and: (1) the FDA issues a notice of refusal of admission; or (2) the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed; or (3) more than 30 days have passed since the date of release.
- BThe importer has presented documentation to the FDA demonstrating that the merchandise is properly licensed and in compliance.
- CThe conditional release has not been extended in accordance with 19 C.F.R. 141.113(c)(2), and: (1) the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed; or (2) more than 15 days have passed since the date of release.
- DThe FDA has written to the importer acknowledging receipt of documentation demonstrating that the merchandise is properly licensed and in compliance.
- ENone of the above.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.113(c) specifies that a conditional release for food, drugs, etc., terminates if the release is not extended, the FDA issues a notice of refusal of admission, the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed (which effectively ends the conditional status), or 30 days have passed since release. Options B and D incorrectly suggest termination based on documentation presented to the FDA, which is not a termination condition under the cited rule. Option C incorrectly references a 15-day period instead of the 30-day period required by 19 CFR 141.113(c)(2).
April 2022, Q26. The chemical compounds, petroleum coke and petroleum bitumen, are classified under HTS heading 2713. What additional information must an invoice covering a shipment of these goods contain?
- ATrade name and percentage by weight of each component
- BAny metallic element and percentage thereof
- CStatement of weight and color
- DIntended use and Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number
- EWhether it is a dye and what material it is applied to
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D) Intended use and Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number. 19 CFR 141.89(a) lists extra invoice requirements by class of merchandise, and the entry for chemicals reads: "Furnish the use and Chemical Abstracts Service number of chemical compounds classified in Chapters 27, 28 and 29, HTSUS." Petroleum coke and petroleum bitumen sit in heading 2713, which is in Chapter 27, so both pieces are required. The other choices are real 141.89 requirements attached to different goods, which is what makes them tempting: percentage by weight of each component belongs to certain textile and alloy entries, metallic elements to iron and steel, and colour and dye questions to heading 3204 products. None of them attaches to Chapter 27 chemicals.
April 2022, Q30. Which CBP Form may be used for giving power of attorney (POA) to transact customs business?
- ACBP Form 3461
- BCBP Form 5291
- CCBP Form 7501
- DCBP Form 7512B
- ECBP Form 7523
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B) CBP Form 5291 because 19 CFR 141.32 explicitly states that this form may be used for granting power of attorney to transact customs business. The regulation also clarifies that any other power of attorney must meet specific criteria, such as being a general or limited power of attorney with explicit terms. The other options are not mentioned in the cited authority, so they are not valid for this purpose.
April 2022, Q68. When may a Power of Attorney (POA) be revoked?
- APrior to being submitted to CBP
- BWithin 30 days from execution
- CUpon written approval by the port director
- DAt any time by written notice given to and received by the port director
- EIt may not be revoked
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 explicitly states that a POA may be revoked "at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP," which aligns with option D. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not limit revocation to before submission; revocation is allowed at any time. Option B is unsupported as the 30-day period is not mentioned in the cited authority. Option C is incorrect because revocation does not require port director approval, only written notice. Option E is false because the regulation clearly permits revocation.
April 2023, Q34. Which of the following statements is TRUE under the following facts? On September 1, 2022, a broker filed a type 02 entry for a shipment from England of 4,000 kilograms of tobacco under 2401.10.63 with 23.9 cents per kilogram duty. Concurrently, the broker filed the entry summary data and scheduled payment on a daily statement with a payment date of September 13, 2022. The release date is September 1, 2022, as the tobacco quota for the United Kingdom was not full. By September 13, 2022, the unliquidated entry summary is in accepted status, CBP control, and fully paid. On October 18, 2022, the importer requested that the broker file a post-summary correction the next day to adjust the value of the entry summary because the invoice was in British Pounds and the foreign currency was not converted to U.S. Dollars before the broker reported entered value on the entry summary.
- AThe broker will call the Port of Entry to request a pen-and-ink change instead of filing a post-summary correction (PSC), as non-revenue changes to entry summary data are not made using the PSC process.
- BThe broker will file a PSC without reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota because a PSC filed on October 19, 2022 is within the original quota period.
- CThe broker will file a PSC on October 19, 2022 after reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota because a PSC filed on October 19, 2022 is outside the original quota period.
- DThe broker will file a PSC on October 27, 2022 after reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota on October 19, 2022, because the broker must wait at least five (5) days after reserving the quota to file the PSC.
- EThe broker will contact the Center on October 19, 2022 and request that the entry summary be rejected, because non-revenue changes to quota entries are made when entry summary data is refiled in response to a reject notice.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because the post-summary correction (PSC) is filed on October 19, 2022, which is outside the original quota period (presumably ending September 30, 2022), requiring the broker to reserve the quota with Headquarters Quota before filing the PSC. Option B is incorrect because the PSC is not within the original quota period. Option D is incorrect because there is no requirement to wait five days after reserving the quota. The authority (19 CFR 141.64 and Additional US Note 5 to Chapter 20 HTSUS) governs quota reservations for PSCs outside the original quota period.
April 2023, Q54. What is the latest date CBP can demand that the following shipment be returned to CBP custody? A shipment of textile products cl aiming country of origin Hong Kong arrived on March 7, 2022 and was released on March 8, 2022. The entry summary was filed on March 18, 2022. On March 21, 2022, the Center di rector finds that the textile product is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States because the country of origin was not accurately represented as the entry summary should have listed People’s Republic of China as the country of origin.
- AMarch 22, 2022
- BApril 7, 2022
- CApril 20, 2022
- DSeptember 4, 2022
- ESeptember 17, 2022
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.113(b) establishes an 180-day conditional release period for textiles, during which CBP may demand return if the country of origin was inaccurately represented. The shipment was released on March 8, 2022, so the 180-day period ends on September 4, 2022. Options A and B incorrectly apply a 30-day rule from 141.113(a), which governs marking issues, not country-of-origin misrepresentation for textiles. Options C and E misinterpret the timeline or miscalculate the 180-day period.
April 2023, Q55. As defined in the Customs Regulations, what does "released conditionally" mean?
- AAny release from CBP custody before liquidation.
- BThe bond is a temporary importation bond.
- CAny admission of merchandise to a Foreign Trade Zone.
- DAny release of merchandise to the General Order warehouse.
- EThe release requires further action, such as marking.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.0a(i) explicitly defines "released conditionally" as "any release from CBP custody before liquidation," which aligns directly with option A. Option B refers to a temporary importation bond, which is addressed in 19 CFR 141.0a(h), not the definition of "released conditionally." Option C involves admission to a Foreign Trade Zone, which is governed by separate provisions not mentioned in the cited text. Option D pertains to General Order warehouses, a term not defined in the cited authority. Option E suggests further action is required, but the regulation does not specify such conditions as part of the definition.
April 2025, Q4. For which company below will the customs broker be required to obtain documentation establishing the authority of the grantor to execute a power of attorney?
- AGrayson, Grayson, and Drew, a corporation organized in the U.S. Virgin Islands
- BLightning Spirits, a corporation organized in Delaware, United States
- CCoope Puerto Thiel, a corporation organized, located and registered only in Costa Rica
- DTerra Firma Landscape, a corporation organized in and located in Puerto Rico
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.31(d) defines a "nonresident" as a corporation not incorporated within the U.S. Customs territory or the Virgin Islands, requiring documentation to verify the grantor’s authority. Coope Puerto Thiel, being incorporated in Costa Rica, is a nonresident, necessitating such documentation. Options A and D are residents (Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico are within the Customs territory), and B is a U.S. corporation, so none of these require additional verification under 19 CFR 101.1. The other options are tempting but incorrect because they fall under the "resident" category, which is exempt from this documentation requirement.
April 2025, Q22. X-Rocs, Inc. (X-Rocs) imports multifunction digital office machines (copiers) with copy, print, fax, and scan functions to the U.S. from Korea. X-Rocs has a valid limited power of attorney (POA) with Expeditious Customs Brokers, LLC (Expeditious), limited to entering imported merchandise for consumption. Four years after importation, if the copiers have not sold in the U.S., X-Rocs exports the copiers to India. X-Rocs has a valid limited POA with Trade Experts Customs Brokers (TradeEx) for its drawback program. X-Rocs’ Vice President has signed a POA granting X-Rocs’ Trade Compliance Manager, who is not a licensed customs broker, the power to sign contracts and business documents on behalf of X-Rocs. A broker at TradeEx executed a POA with an unlicensed employee to sign customs business documents on behalf of TradeEx. Of the list below, who does NOT have the authority to sign drawback entries submitted to CBP on behalf of X-Rocs?
- AThe Vice-President of X-Rocs
- BAn employee of Expeditious
- CThe Trade Compliance Manager with X-Rocs
- DThe unlicensed employee of TradeEx
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because an employee of Expeditious does not have the authority to sign drawback entries. Under 19 CFR 190.6(a)-(b), only licensed customs brokers with a valid power of attorney (POA) can act on behalf of importers for customs entries, including drawback. Expeditious’ POA with X-Rocs is limited to entering merchandise for consumption, not drawback, and the employee is not a licensed broker. The Vice-President (A) may sign as an authorized representative under 19 CFR 190.6(a), the Trade Compliance Manager (C) lacks broker status but is not directly involved in drawback entries, and the unlicensed TradeEx employee (D) is not a broker, but the question hinges on the specific limitation of Expeditious’ POA.
April 2025, Q49. Which of the following best defines "entry summary?”
- AAny other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law and regulations are met.
- BThe voluntary delivery to the appropriate CBP officer or electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP authorized electronic data interchange system of the documentation or data for preliminary review of entry documentation or data for other purposes.
- CThe imported merchandise which has not been properly released from Customs custody in a Customs territory.
- DThe delivery to CBP, including electronic submission to ACE or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, of the entry documentation or data required by section 484(a), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 USC 1484(a)), to obtain the release of merchandise.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.0a(b) explicitly defines "entry summary" as "any other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law or regulation are met." This matches the language in option A. Option B describes "submission," as defined in 19 CFR 141.0a(c), which involves voluntary delivery for preliminary review, not the broader purpose of an entry summary. Option C refers to "unreleased merchandise," a term not defined in the cited text. Option D defines "filing" under 19 CFR 141.0a(d)(1), which focuses on obtaining merchandise release, not the statistical and duty-assessment functions of an entry summary.
April 2025, Q54. Which of the following goods are NOT specifically exempted from formal entry procedures under 19 CFR 141.4(b)?
- AAn aircraft part from a United States-registered aircraft that was removed during an emergency repair while being used abroad in international traffic. The part was returned to the United States within 45 days after removal and did not leave the custody of the carrier or foreign customs service while abroad.
- BThe corpse of a U.S. citizen, including a coffin and accompanying flowers.
- CA yacht purchased in Mexico and brought into United States customs territory by a U.S. resident for the purpose of commercial cruises.
- DA truck cab and trailer transporting Canadian lumber into the customs territory of the United States and returning to Canada after the shipment of lumber has been delivered.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because the yacht purchased in Mexico for commercial use does not fall under any of the exemptions listed in 19 CFR 141.4(b). The exceptions include aircraft parts returned under specific conditions (A), human remains and associated items (B), and vehicles used in international traffic (D). However, the yacht is not exempt as it is not classified as a vessel in international traffic under the HTSUS exemptions or as an instrument of international traffic under §10.41a/b. The regulation does not specifically exempt commercial yachts, requiring formal entry procedures. Option A is exempt under General Note 3(e) for returned aircraft parts. Option B is exempt for human remains under General Note 3(e). Option D is exempt as a vehicle used in international traffic under §10.41a/b.
April 2026, Q21. You have received a “documents required” notification after the entry summary was filed. In reviewing the invoice, you handwrite additional information on the invoice to provide all required information, including the addition to the description of the bedspreads that the bedspread contains edging. Which ONE of the regulations listed below contains the requirement that prompted you to change the description as shown on the invoice provided?
- A19 CFR 141.86(a)(3)
- B19 CFR 141.86(h)(3)
- C19 CFR 141.89(a)
- D19 CFR 142.6(a)(4)
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.89(a) explicitly requires invoices for textile articles, including bedspreads, to include specific descriptive details such as the presence of edging, which aligns with the scenario where the broker added this information. The other options do not address textile-specific invoice requirements. For example, 19 CFR 141.86(a)(3) and (h)(3) pertain to different categories of merchandise (e.g., aluminum, rubber) and do not mention textile descriptions. 19 CFR 142.6(a)(4) relates to entry procedures, not invoice content for textiles. The cited text under 141.89(a) directly supports the requirement to describe edging in textile items.
April 2026, Q50. Merchandise arrived at a port of entry and has been unladen from a vessel. No entry or entry summary has been filed. The merchandise can remain on the dock before it is deemed not timely entered for _____ days and the carrier has to give notice of unentered merchandise to a bonded warehouse certified by the port director as qualified to receive general order merchandise no later than _____ calendar days after landing.
- A20; 20
- B15; 20
- C30; 60
- D10; 30
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B) 15; 20 because 19 CFR 141.5 mandates that merchandise must be entered within 15 calendar days after landing, and 19 CFR 4.37(a) and (c) require the carrier to notify the bonded warehouse within 20 calendar days after landing. Other options are incorrect because they misstate the 15-day entry deadline or the 20-day notice requirement, which are explicitly defined in the cited regulations.
April 2026, Q62. Jane Doe is filing an entry summary. One line item is for a woman's dress, which is a woven garment of three different colors. In addition to the general information required on the accompanying commercial invoice, what other information that is specific to the dress must be provided on the invoice by regulation?
- AWhether the dress contains any embroidery, lace, braid, edging, trimming, piping or applique work
- BWhether the dress has pockets sewn in
- CThe exact dimensions (length and width) of the dress
- DWhether there are two or more colors in the warp and/or filling in the dress fabric
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.89(a) explicitly requires woven garments to indicate whether the fabric contains "two or more colors in the warp and/or filling," which directly applies to the dress described. Option A is not required for general dresses, as the regulation specifies embroidery details only for all-white T-shirts. Option B pertains to pockets, which are mentioned only for T-shirts, not dresses. Option C applies to mufflers, not dresses, as the regulation mandates exact dimensions only for that category.
April 2026, Q63. Johnson Consolidated Freight, Inc. (JCF) is the nominal consignee for a shipment of empty glass bottles, consigned to IPA (USA), Inc. (IPA), a beer brewer. JCF has an appropriate power of attorney with IPA. JCF contracts with Knowledgeable Customs Brokers, LLC (Knowledgeable) for Knowledgeable to file the entry and entry summary as the importer of record for the shipment. Knowledgeable obtains power of attorney from IPA and files the entry and entry summary with itself as the importer of record and obligates its basic importation and entry bond. Which one of the steps below is NOT one of the steps Knowledgeable will take to be relieved of liability for increased and additional duties owed under the facts above?
- AKnowledgeable will file a declaration within 90 days from the time of entry with CBP made by the actual owner of the merchandise acknowledging that the owner will pay all additional and increased duties along with a bond of the actual owner containing bond conditions set forth in 19 CFR 113.62.
- BKnowledgeable will furnish within 90 days from the time of entry copies of the power of attorney documents between Knowledgeable and JCF and Knowledgeable and IPA proving that Knowledgeable had the right to make entry under 19 CFR 141.11.
- CKnowledgeable will declare to CBP at the time of filing the entry and entry summary that it is not the actual owner of the goods.
- DKnowledgeable will furnish to CBP at the time of filing the entry and entry summary the name and address of the actual owner of the goods.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because the regulation (19 CFR 141.19) does not require furnishing power of attorney documents to CBP as a step to relieve liability. Instead, it focuses on declarations by the consignee or agent and charges against the bond. Option A is valid because filing a declaration with the actual owner and a bond under 19 CFR 113.62 is a recognized method to shift liability. Option C is correct because declaring non-ownership at the time of entry is necessary to avoid liability. Option D is valid because providing the actual owner’s name and address is standard practice when the importer of record is not the owner. The cited authority does not mention power of attorney documents as a required step for relieving liability.
May 2024, Q3. ZXY Importer (ZXY) is switching customs brokerages. ZXY is terminating its relationship with Slick Customs Brokerage Co. (Slick). The power of attorney contract between ZXY and Slick was granted for an unlimited time period. Which of the following parings correctly indicates who may revoke the power of attorney between ZXY as the principal and Slick as the agent?
- APrincipal Yes, Agent No
- BPrincipal No, Agent Yes
- CPrincipal No, Agent No
- DPrincipal Yes, Agent Yes
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 states that any power of attorney may be revoked at any time by written notice to CBP, without specifying that only the principal may revoke it. This implies both parties (principal and agent) may initiate revocation, as the regulation does not restrict revocation to one party. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they assume limitations not stated in the regulation; the text does not prohibit the agent from revoking or require the principal’s consent for revocation.
May 2024, Q16. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding country of origin?
- AThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the air cargo manifest under 19 CFR 122.48.
- BThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the commercial invoice under 19 CFR 141.86.
- CThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the air waybill under 19 CFR 141.11.
- DThe country of origin of the Luxemburg Digital Press is China because Beijing was the port of departure.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.86(a)(10) explicitly requires the country of origin of merchandise to be stated on the commercial invoice for imported goods. Options A and C are incorrect because the cited authority does not mention the air cargo manifest or air waybill requiring country of origin data; these documents are governed by other regulations not referenced here. Option D is incorrect because the country of origin is determined by production location, not the port of departure, and the cited authority does not address this rule.
May 2024, Q51. What is the earliest possible time that duties and the liability for their payment accrue on imported commercial goods arriving by vessel?
- AUpon arrival of the importing vessel within a Customs port of entry with the intent then and there to unlade.
- BUpon the departure of the importing vessel from a foreign port of lading with the intent to unlade at a U.S. Customs port of entry.
- CUpon the filing of the entry information on Form 3461 or its electronic equivalent and obtaining a clearance from CBP.
- DUpon filing an entry summary on CBP Form 7501 or its electronic equivalent and scheduling the duty payment on a statement.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.1(a) explicitly states that duties and liability for their payment accrue upon the arrival of the importing vessel within a Customs port with the intent to unlade. This aligns directly with option A, which captures the precise moment of accrual as defined by the regulation. Option B is incorrect because the departure from a foreign port does not trigger duty accrual under the cited authority, which focuses on arrival within the U.S. Option C and D refer to procedural steps (filing forms or scheduling payments) that occur after duty accrual, not the moment it begins. The regulation does not tie accrual to entry filing or payment scheduling, making those options irrelevant to the question.
May 2024, Q61. The following types of evidence of right to make entry for importations by common carrier when merchandise is not released directly to the carrier are acceptable types of evidence EXCEPT:
- AA bill of lading or air waybill properly endorsed when required.
- BAn extract from a bill of lading or air waybill that has not been certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry.
- CA certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill with the carrier's certificate in the required form.
- DA shipping receipt or other document presented in lieu of a bill of lading when entry is made by the actual consignee in person.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.11(a)(2) explicitly requires that any extract from a bill of lading or air waybill must be certified to be genuine by the carrier; an un certified extract does not satisfy this requirement. Options A, C, and D are acceptable because they align with the regulations: A involves a properly endorsed bill of lading, C refers to a certified duplicate with the carrier’s certificate, and D describes a shipping receipt used by the consignee in person, which is permitted under 19 CFR 141.11(a)(4). The absence of certification in B disqualifies it as valid evidence.
May 2024, Q62. Use the provided calendar and the following entry record information to determine the answer with the correct dates in order for 1) entry filing due date, 2) final possible post-summary correction (PSC) submission date without an extension, and 3) final protest submission date. If any single date in the series is incorrect, the entire answer is incorrect. • The shipment is of commercial goods whose entered value exceeds $2,500.00, and it arrived at the port of entry on February 15, 2024. • The date of entry is the same date that the broker filed entry and is February 16, 2024. • Broker filed entry summary and paid the amount due on March 4, 2024. • Broker filed a PSC on April 15, 2024, requesting a refund and accelerated liquidation. CBP disagreed in part with the PSC, and the entry liquidated on April 26, 2024.
- AMarch 1, 2024; December 12, 2024; October 23, 2024
- BFebruary 15, 2024; April 15, 2024; August 15, 2024
- CMarch 7, 2024; December 10, 2024;July 25, 2024
- DMarch 1, 2024; December 10, 2024; October 23, 2024
Show the answer and explanation
The credited answer is A) March 1, 2024; December 12, 2024; October 23, 2024. The cited text reads: Merchandise for which entry is required will be entered within 15 calendar days after landing from a vessel, aircraft or vehicle, or after arrival at the port of destination in the case of merchandise transported in bond. Merchandise for which timely entry is not made will be treated in accordance with § 4.37 or § 122.50 or § 123.10 of this chapter.
October 2019, Q1. What is a customs broker required to have in order to conduct customs business on behalf of others?
- AA copy of the Customs Regulations
- BCommercial invoices
- CPayment of services rendered
- DA valid power of attorney
- EAll of the above
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.46 explicitly requires a customs broker to obtain a valid power of attorney before acting on behalf of a principal, establishing this as a legal prerequisite for conducting customs business. Options A, B, and C are not mandated by the cited authority: having the Customs Regulations (A) is not a requirement for brokerage authority, commercial invoices (B) are transactional documents, not legal prerequisites, and payment for services (C) pertains to compensation, not legal standing. Option E is incorrect because it aggregates non-mandatory elements with the correct requirement.
October 2019, Q18. A nonresident corporation, which is not incorporated within the customs territory of the United States or in the Virgin Islands of the United States, wishes to enter merchandise for consumption. The nonresident corporation will not file the entry from a remote location pursuant to subpart E of Part 143 of title 19 of the C.F.R. In order to enter the merchandise for consumption, which of the following is CORRECT?
- AThe nonresident corporation must have a non-resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located.
- BThe nonresident corporation must have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is not authorized to accept service of process against that corporation.
- CThe nonresident corporation must file a bond, but the bond does not have to contain the bond conditions set forth in 19 C.F.R. § 113.62.
- DThe nonresident corporation must file a bond having a nonresident corporate surety to secure the payment of any increased and additional duties which may be found due.
- EThe nonresident corporation must have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is authorized to accept service of process against that corporation.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is E because 19 CFR 141.18(a) explicitly requires a nonresident corporation to have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is authorized to accept service of process. This aligns with the regulation’s clear language. Option A is incorrect because it refers to a non-resident agent, which is not required. Option B is incorrect because the agent must be authorized to accept service of process, not prohibited from doing so. Option C is wrong because the bond must contain the conditions in 19 CFR § 113.62, as stated in 19 CFR 141.18(b). Option D is incorrect because the bond must have a resident corporate surety, not a nonresident one.
October 2019, Q63. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding a power of attorney?
- AA power of attorney must be legible.
- BA power of attorney must identify a Grantor and a Grantee.
- CA power of attorney may be completed on CBP Form 5291 “Power of Attorney.”
- DA power of attorney must identify only nonresident principals.
- EA power of attorney must include the statement to accept service of process against a nonresident principal.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.31(d) defines "nonresident" but does not restrict power of attorney documents to nonresident principals. A power of attorney may apply to either resident or nonresident principals, making the statement in D incorrect. Options A, B, and C are correct: legibility is required for all legal documents, a power of attorney must identify the Grantor and Grantee, and CBP Form 5291 is an acceptable form. Option E is also correct because the regulation implicitly requires such a statement for nonresident principals, as service of process is a legal necessity. The error in D lies in its exclusive focus on nonresidents, which contradicts the regulation’s inclusive definition.
October 2020 (AM), Q16. Which of the following is NOT an exception to the requirement that estimated duties shall either be deposited with CBP at the time of the filing of the entry documentation or the entry summary documentation when it serves as both the entry and entry summary (or be transmitted to Customs according to the statement processing method found in the applicable Customs regulations)?
- AMerchandise entered for warehouse
- BInformal mail entry
- CTemporary importation of goods under bond
- DAppraisement entry
- EEntry for consumption
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is E) Entry for consumption because the exceptions listed in 19 CFR 141.101(a)-(e) explicitly exclude this scenario. The cited authority details exceptions for warehouse entries (a)-(b), informal mail entries (c), appraisement entries (d), and temporary or bonded entries (e), but does not mention "entry for consumption" as an exception. Since the requirement applies unless an exception is explicitly stated, entry for consumption falls under the general rule requiring estimated duty deposits. The other options are explicitly excluded by the text of 19 CFR 141.101.
October 2020 (AM), Q20. Per Section 19 CFR Part 141, which of the below is TRUE?
- AEntry is required on telecommunications transmissions
- BMerchandise for which entry is required will be entered within 10 calendar days after landing from a vessel, aircraft or vehicle, or after arrival at the port of destination in which merchandise is transported in bond
- CWhen merchandise is not imported by a common carrier, possession of the merchandise at the time of arrival in the United States shall be deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry
- DA power of attorney to a minor shall be accepted
- EA trustee may not execute a power of attorney for the transaction of Customs business incident to the trusteeship
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.12 explicitly states that possession of merchandise at the time of arrival in the U.S. is deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry when the merchandise is not imported by a common carrier. Option A is incorrect because 19 CFR Part 141 does not address entry requirements for telecommunications transmissions. Option B misstates the timeline, as 19 CFR 141.4(b)(1) does not specify a 10-day period for entry. Option D is unsupported, as 19 CFR 141.31(c) and 141.40 do not mention acceptance of powers of attorney for minors. Option E is incorrect because 19 CFR 141.40 allows a trustee to execute a power of attorney for Customs business.
October 2020 (AM), Q21. When may a power of attorney be revoked?
- APrior to being submitted to CBP
- BWithin 30 days from execution
- CUpon written approval by the Port Director
- DAt any time by written notice given to and received by CBP
- EIt may not be revoked
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 explicitly states that a power of attorney may be revoked "at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP," without time limits or additional approvals. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not restrict revocation to before submission; revocation is allowed even after submission. Option B is unsupported as the 30-day period is not mentioned in the cited text. Option C is incorrect because the regulation does not require Port Director approval for revocation. Option E is directly contradicted by the regulation, which permits revocation at any time.
October 2020 (PM), Q21. ___________ is used to give power of attorney to conduct Customs business on behalf of another?
- ACBP Form 368
- BCBP Form 3347
- CCBP Form 4647
- DCBP Form 5291
- ECBP Form 7501
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D) CBP Form 5291 because 19 CFR 141.32 explicitly states that this form is used to grant power of attorney for Customs business. The text provides an example of the form’s content, confirming its role in authorizing agents to act on behalf of principals. The other options (A, B, C, E) are not referenced in the cited authority, so they lack support from the cited regulation.
October 2021, Q19. An individual who qualifies as an importer of record under 19 USC 1484 may authorize an unpaid agent to enter merchandise on their behalf, so long as ___________________.
- AThe merchandise is a gift.
- BThe authorization is made in writing, no power of attorney is required, and the importer is not acting on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association.
- CThe individual is a regular importer, the appointment is for a single article of merchandise, and the agent is a relative.
- DThe individual is not acting on behalf of a corporate entity, and the shipment is valued at or under $800.
- EThe individual is not a regular importer, the appointment is for a single non-commercial shipment, and the authorization is made by executing a power of attorney.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is E because 19 CFR 141.33 explicitly states that an individual who is not a regular importer may appoint an unpaid agent by executing a power of attorney for a single non-commercial shipment. This matches E’s conditions. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not limit authorization to gifts; it applies to any non-commercial shipment. Option B is wrong because a power of attorney is required, not excluded. Option C is invalid because the individual must not be a regular importer, and the agent’s relationship is not specified. Option D is incorrect because the regulation does not mention a 800 value threshold.
October 2021, Q20. Which piece of information is NOT a requirement on a commercial invoice?
- AAll rebates, drawbacks, and bounties, separately itemized, allowed upon the exportation of the merchandise
- BAn itemized list by name and amount of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation, if included in the invoice price, and so identified
- CThe kind of currency, whether gold, silver or paper
- DThe port of entry to which the merchandise is destined
- EThe name of a responsible employee of the exporter, who has knowledge, or who can readily obtain knowledge, of the transaction
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B. 19 CFR 141.86(a)(8) requires all charges upon the merchandise to be itemized by name and amount, but it then carves this out expressly: "The cost of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation need not be itemized by amount if included in the invoice price, and so identified." Option B describes exactly that situation, and in it the itemized list is the one thing the regulation says you do not have to provide. The rest are required. The port of entry to which the merchandise is destined is (a)(1), which is D. The kind of currency, whether gold, silver or paper, is (a)(7), which is C. Rebates, drawbacks and bounties allowed on exportation, separately itemized, are (a)(9), which is A. And 141.86(j) requires every invoice to identify by name a responsible employee of the exporter with knowledge of the transaction, which is E.
October 2021, Q51. C BP may demand that released merchandise be redelivered if it fails to comply with laws or regulations governing its admission into the United States. This may include admissibility determinations by other government agencies. CBP may also seek redelivery for the purposes of examination (including the failure to provide a sample) or country of origin marking. If the merchandise is not redelivered or the redelivery is untimely, the liquidated damages claim is set at the ___________________of the merchandise. If the merchandise is prohibited, restricted, or contains alcoholic beverages, the demand amount is _______________________.
- ATotal duty; 3 times the total duty
- BEntered value; 3 times the entered value
- CEntered value; 2 times the entered value
- DTotal duty, taxes and fees (minus the harbor maintenance fee); 2 times the total duty taxes and fees (minus the harbor maintenance fee)
- EEntered value times 0.01%; entered value times 0.01% + $100.00
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B) Entered value; 3 times the entered value. Both figures come from one sentence in 19 CFR 113.62(n)(1), the default condition of the basic importation and entry bond: the obligors agree to pay liquidated damages "equal to the value of the merchandise involved in the default, or three times the value of the merchandise involved in the default if the merchandise is restricted or prohibited merchandise or alcoholic beverages". The redelivery demand itself rests on 19 CFR 113.62(d), the agreement to redeliver merchandise released conditionally where it fails to comply with the laws governing admission, must be examined, or must be marked. 19 CFR 141.113 is the recall mechanism. The two-tier damages structure, ordinary value versus three times value for restricted or prohibited goods and alcohol, is what the question is testing, and only 113.62(n)(1) states both halves.
October 2022, Q7. Which Customs Regulation provides the process for separating quantities of merchandise into separate entries and provides the exception to the rule that all merchandise arriving on one conveyance and consigned to one consignee must be included on one entry, under the facts of this Practical Exercise?
- ANone, because the importer or broker decides how many entries to file for a quantity of merchandise arriving on one conveyance and consigned to one consignee.
- B19 CFR, Part 10
- C19 CFR 141.51
- D19 CFR 141.52(g)
- E19 CFR 141.54(a)
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D) 19 CFR 141.52(g), as this section explicitly permits separate entries for portions of merchandise under specific conditions, including when the consignment contains merchandise subject to entry under a bond, such as temporary importation. The cited authority states that the Center director may approve such separations if no prejudice to Customs interests occurs. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not grant unilateral authority to the importer or broker; approval by the Center director is required. Options B, C, and E refer to sections not directly addressing the exception for bonded entries, which is the focus of 19 CFR 141.52(g).
October 2022, Q10. CBP has issued a CBP Form 28, Request for Information, for the Temporary Importation under Bond (TIB) entry that ABC Customs Brokers, LLC (ABC) filed for the importer of record (IOR) Creasioni Marchesa. The IOR does not have an Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) account. CBP has issued the electronic CBP Form 28 dated October 28, 2022, with a 30-day response time and mailed a courtesy copy only to ABC. CBP did not provide the IOR with a copy of the CBP Form 28. Note from the facts above, that ABC has a valid Power of Attorney with the IOR. Which of the following is FALSE?
- AUnder the facts provided, the IOR did not receive proper notice of the CBP Form 28, Request for Information, because CBP failed to send a paper copy to the IOR in Italy or to ensure electronic delivery to the IOR in Italy.
- BIf the IOR fails to respond to the CBP Form 28, Request for Information, within the 30-day response time, CBP may file a liquidated damages case against the IOR’s bond for not filing a timely response.
- CIn a valid Power of Attorney agreement, where a nonresident importer, such as an IOR based in a foreign country, is the principal, the agent (Customs broker) is designated to receive service of process on behalf of the nonresident importer; therefore, sending a copy of a CBP form to the agent has the effect of sending a copy to the principal.
- DIn a valid Power of Attorney agreement, where a corporate nonresident importer, such as corporation based in a foreign country, is the principal, the agent has an obligation to attach supplemental documentation establishing the authority of the grantor to sign the Power of Attorney agreement on behalf of the principal.
- EABC may respond on behalf of the IOR by providing the information requested on the CBP Form 28 by uploading the documents to Document Imaging System (DIS), through the ACE Portal, or by mailing the response to the requester indicated on the CBP Form 28.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because the IOR's lack of an ACE account does not negate the validity of the Power of Attorney, which designates ABC as the agent to receive service of process on behalf of the IOR. Under 19 CFR 141.36, a valid Power of Attorney allows the agent to accept service, so CBP’s delivery to ABC satisfies notice requirements. Option A is false because it incorrectly assumes CBP must send a paper copy to the IOR, which is unnecessary when a valid Power of Attorney exists. Option B is correct because failure to respond may trigger liquidated damages under 19 CFR 113.62(c). Option C is correct as 19 CFR 141.37 confirms that service to the agent is equivalent to service to the principal. Option D is correct because 19 CFR 172.1 requires documentation proving the grantor’s authority. Option E is correct because 19 CFR 141.36 permits responses via electronic or paper means.
October 2022, Q64. A duly licensed broker has a power of attorney (POA) on file from Valley Computer Co., Inc. (Valley, Inc.), a publicly traded California corporation. Michael Valley called the broker and advised that he has reorganized Valley, Inc. and it is now a privately held corporation, incorporated in Delaware and it is also called Valley Computer Co., Inc. (Valley Delaware). Michael Valley, in his capacity as President of Valley Delaware, wants the broker to clear a shipment on an ocean cargo ship that will arrive in 20 days. Before entry can be filed, what action must the broker take regarding the POA?
- ANo action need be taken because the Valley, Inc. POA does not expire.
- BNo action need be taken because the standard POA language provides that successor companies are covered by the terms of the agreement with the Customs broker.
- CReview the POA and, if the POA was signed by Michael Valley as an officer of the California corporation, no additional action need be taken.
- DRequest a POA termination letter from the California corporation named Valley Computer Co., Inc.
- ERequest a new POA from Michael Valley and the Delaware corporation named Valley Computer Co., Inc.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is E because the power of attorney (POA) must be issued by the current principal, which is now Valley Delaware, not the former California corporation. 19 CFR 141.46 requires a valid POA for transacting customs business on behalf of a principal, and the principal is now a different legal entity. Options A and B incorrectly assume the existing POA remains valid despite the change in corporate structure, which is not supported by the regulation. Option C is flawed because the original POA's validity depends on the principal's identity, not the signature of an officer. Option D is irrelevant as the POA is not required to be terminated, but rather replaced with a new one from the current principal.
October 2022, Q65. Which regulation states the rules concerning powers of attorney with respect to filing protests on behalf of importers?
- A19 CFR 111.23
- B19 CFR 141.31
- C19 CFR 174.3
- D19 CFR 190.6
- E19 CFR 191.6
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because the cited authority explicitly states that powers of attorney for filing protests are governed by 19 CFR 174.3. The other options (A, B, D, E) are not mentioned in the cited text and therefore lack direct support from the authority. The question focuses on the specific regulation addressing powers of attorney, which is clearly identified in 19 CFR 174.3.
October 2023, Q4. The Danube Trading Company (Danube Trading) arranges for the importation of monosodium glutamate (“MSG”) for customers in the U.S., including the Saucy Seasonings Corporation (Saucy Seasonings). Danube Trading is not the seller or buyer of the MSG and does not qualify as importer of record. On an entry of MSG, Danube Trading’s customs broker mistakenly listed Danube Trading as the ultimate consignee (as well the importer of record) on the entry summary instead of Saucy Seasonings, the actual owner. If Danube Trading wants to be relieved from statutory liability for the payment of increased and additional duties on the entry, it must declare at the time of the filing of the entry summary or entry documentation that it is not the actual owner of the merchandise, furnish CBP with the name and address of Saucy Seasonings, and file with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically within ninety (90) days from the time of entry, a declaration of Saucy Seasonings acknowledging that the actual owner will pay all additional and increased duties. What is the correct form for the Saucy Seasonings declaration that Danube Trading must file with CBP?
- ACBP Form 3173
- BCBP Form 3347
- CCBP Form 3461
- DCBP Form 3495
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B) CBP Form 3347, as 19 CFR 141.20(a)(1) explicitly states that the declaration of the actual owner must be filed on Customs Form 3347. The other options (Forms 3173, 3461, and 3495) are not referenced in the cited authority and thus cannot be correct. The regulation directly ties the required declaration to Form 3347, making it the only valid choice.
October 2023, Q16. Which power of attorney principal is a "nonresident" entity?
- ATropical Clothier LLC (a U.S. Virgin Islands registered limited liability company)
- BFantasy Footware Co. (a corporation registered in Guam)
- CGray & Gray, PC (a professional corporation registered in the District of Columbia)
- DAdams & Jefferson (an unregistered partnership with a general partner who resides in Maryland)
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because the regulation defines a "resident" corporation as one incorporated in the Customs territory of the United States or the Virgin Islands. Fantasy Footware Co. is registered in Guam, which is a U.S. territory within the Customs territory, but the question hinges on whether "registered" equates to "incorporated." However, the regulation explicitly uses "incorporated," not "registered," and the other options (A, C, D) clearly meet the "resident" criteria (Virgin Islands, D.C., or a partnership with a Maryland resident). The tempting wrong options are incorrect because they either meet the "resident" definition (A, C) or involve a partnership with a resident (D), which would still be considered "resident" under 19 CFR 141.31(d).
October 2023, Q18. Which of the following may a licensed organizational broker appoint as a subagent for a resident importer (principal) under a power of attorney that contains express authority to appoint subagents?
- AThe broker's licensed officer
- BA co-principal
- CA port director
- DA surety
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.43(c) explicitly permits a licensed customhouse broker to act through its licensed officers under a power of attorney. The other options are not valid: B) a co-principal is not a subagent and lacks authority under the cited rule; C) a port director is a government official, not a subagent, and D) a surety is unrelated to subagent appointment authority. The rule specifically limits subagent authority to the broker’s licensed officers.
October 2023, Q80. What is the commercial invoice lacking to be compliant with the Customs regulations?
- AAn attached accurate English translation
- BQuantity in the weights and measures of the country of shipment
- CThe time, place, and to whom the merchandise was sold
- DThe kind of currency, whether gold, silver, or paper
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.86(d) explicitly requires that the invoice and all attachments be in English or include an accurate English translation. Without this, the invoice cannot be examined for duty determination. Option B is not required unless weights and measures are necessary to ascertain duties, as stated in 19 CFR 141.86(f), but this is not a universal requirement. Option C is mandated by 19 CFR 141.86(a)(2), which requires details about the sale, but the question focuses on the missing translation. Option D is addressed in 19 CFR 141.86(a)(3), which requires stating the currency type, but this is not the missing element in the scenario.
October 2024, Q52. Non-quota merchandise that is subject to the Section 232 Presidential Proclamation regarding steel and covered by an entry for immediate transportation made at the port of original importation, if entered for consumption at the port designated by the consignee or his agent in such transportation entry without having been taken into custody by the port director for general order under 19 USC 1490, shall be subject to the duty rates in effect when _____.
- AThe immediate transportation entry was accepted at the port of original importation.
- BThe shipment arrives at the final destination and a consumption entry is filed.
- CNever. Immediate transportation entries are not subject to duties because they are not actually entered into commerce.
- DThe immediate transportation shipment is destined for the United States (date of export).
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.69(b) explicitly states that duty rates for merchandise entered for immediate transportation are determined at the time the entry is accepted at the port of original importation, regardless of subsequent events. Option B is incorrect because the regulation does not tie duty rates to the arrival at the final destination or filing of a consumption entry. Option C is wrong because the regulation explicitly applies duty rates to such entries, contradicting the claim that no duties apply. Option D is irrelevant as the date of export is not referenced in the cited authority.
October 2025, Q10. The U.S. Department of Defense (DoD), an agency or office of the United States Government, hires a licensed customs broker for the importation of armor equipment to be used in a new concept unmanned tank style vehicle. The DoD instructs the broker that a power of attorney is NOT required due to the nature and sensitivity of the importation, and the fact that the equipment is for the account of the DoD. Which of the below statements is TRUE?
- AWhen merchandise is imported by the DoD it is automatically duty-free.
- BThe power of attorney is not required where the DoD is to act as Importer of Record (IOR) due to inherent sensitivities.
- CWhen merchandise is imported by a U.S. government agency it is exempt from examination by CBP.
- DMerchandise imported by, or for the account of the DoD, is subject to ordinary Customs entry requirements and a Power of attorney is required if a customs broker is used.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.46 mandates that a customs broker must obtain a valid power of attorney before acting on behalf of any principal, including the DoD, regardless of the sensitivity or government ownership of the importation. The authority does not exempt government agencies from this requirement. Option A is incorrect because the HTSUS text does not state that DoD imports are automatically duty-free; duty exemptions depend on specific tariff provisions, not the importer’s identity. Option B is incorrect because 19 CFR 10.100 does not provide exceptions for government agencies based on sensitivity; the power of attorney requirement applies universally. Option C is incorrect because the HTSUS text does not mention exemptions from CBP examination for government imports; examination requirements are not addressed in the cited authorities.
October 2025, Q27. The annual Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) limit for beef from Argentina is 20,000,000 KG. The quota period is an annual quota that begins on January 1st. A filer entered beef from Argentina as a type 02 quota entry. Quota was allocated and the entry received a presentation date of July 1, 2025. On September 1, 2025, the filer realized that the quantity of the beef was not accurately recorded, and more beef was imported than originally claimed on the entry. The quota filled on August 1, 2025. The entry has not liquidated. Of the options below, what is the best action the filer could take?
- ARequest cancellation of the original entry.
- BFile a Post Summary Correction (PSC) to correct the entry.
- CContact HQ Quota to determine whether any quota quantity can be reserved.
- DFile a PSC when the next quota period opens.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C because the quota was already filled on August 1, 2025, and the entry has not yet liquidated, leaving a window to address the overage. Contacting HQ Quota allows the filer to explore whether unused quota capacity exists or if adjustments can be made before the quota is fully consumed. Option A is incorrect because canceling the entry would not resolve the overage and could prevent re-entry under the same quota. Option B is flawed because a Post Summary Correction (PSC) cannot adjust quota usage once the quota is filled. Option D is impractical as waiting until the next quota period would likely miss the opportunity to correct the error within the current quota period. Authority: 19 CFR 141.67 (recall of entries before effective time).
October 2025, Q34. Of the four choices below, which is the best CLASSIFICATION of a machine that produces glass fibers? This machine is a highly specialized piece of equipment that operates at elevated temperatures to produce glass fibers using molten glass. Due to the size of the complete machine, it cannot be shipped on a single conveyance. The importer of record elected to enter the machine disassembled and in multiple shipments within six days at the Port of Newark. The first shipment was released pursuant to a special permit for immediate delivery upon arrival. After the components are imported, they will be delivered directly to the customer and will be assembled then.
- A8475.29.0000
- B8479.89.9599
- C8464.90.0110
- D8475.90.9000
Show the answer and explanation
The correct classification is 8475.29.0000 HTSUS because the machine is explicitly described as a device for "manufacturing or hot working glass or glassware," which aligns with the HTSUS text for this code. The machine’s function of producing glass fibers using molten glass at elevated temperatures falls squarely under "hot working," distinguishing it from 8464.90.0110 (cold working) and 8475.90.9000 (parts). Option B is too generic and unrelated to glass manufacturing. The entry procedures under 19 CFR 141.58 and 142.21(h) do not affect classification but confirm the importer’s compliance with customs rules for disassembled imports.
October 2025, Q52. ABC Importer is importing tracing paper from Germany which is classifiable under subheading 4806.30 of the HTSUS. The paper is being imported as rolls measuring 20 cm in width and 100 yards in length. Which of the following pieces of additional information is NOT required to be included for entry on the invoice or other document accompanying the invoice?
- AWeight of paper in grams per square meter
- BLength of the paper in cm
- CDiameter of the roll in cm
- DWidth of the paper in cm
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.89(a) does not specify that the length of paper in centimeters is required for merchandise classified under HTSUS 4806.30. The cited authority lists requirements for specific categories (e.g., cotton fabrics, copper articles), but none of these apply to tracing paper. Options A, C, and D are not explicitly required by the text, but the question asks which is not required, and the absence of length requirements in the cited text confirms B is correct. Other options may be relevant to other HTSUS classifications, but the text does not mandate them for this case.
October 2025, Q55. Which of the following documents is NOT evidence of the right to make entry for merchandise imported by common carrier which is not released directly to the carrier?
- AA commercial or pro forma invoice.
- BA shipping receipt or other document presented in lieu of a bill of lading or air waybill bearing a carrier’s certificate.
- CA bill of lading or air waybill, presented by the holder thereof, properly endorsed when endorsement is required under the law.
- DAn extract from a bill of lading or air waybill certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.11(a) explicitly lists only documents related to bills of lading, air waybills, or carrier certificates as evidence of the right to make entry. A commercial or pro forma invoice is not mentioned in the cited authority as acceptable evidence for this purpose. Options B, C, and D are directly referenced in 19 CFR 141.11(a) as valid documents, while a pro forma invoice serves a different function (e.g., pricing or transaction details) and is not recognized by the regulation as entry evidence.
October 2025, Q57. Izzie Stein is the importer of record (IOR) on a shipment of goods she purchased directly from a foreign manufacturer. The shipment has estimated duties, taxes, and fees due of $5,800.00. Ms. Stein sold the merchandise to a consignee. Ms. Stein pays her customs broker the $5,800.00 owed to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) but later gets a notice that the duties were never paid. Who will CBP bill for the unpaid duties and why?
- AThe customs broker will be billed because they received the duty payment from Ms. Stein.
- BThe foreign manufacturer will be billed because they are the pay-to party on the commercial invoice.
- CThe consignee will be billed because they received the shipment of goods.
- DMs. Stein will be billed because she is the importer of record.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.1(b)(1) explicitly states that the importer of record (IOR) bears personal liability for unpaid duties, regardless of whether a customs broker received the payment. The liability cannot be discharged by the broker’s actions, and the IOR remains responsible even if the broker fails to remit the funds to CBP. Option A is incorrect because the broker’s receipt of payment does not absolve the IOR of liability, as the rule emphasizes the IOR’s personal debt to the United States. Option B is incorrect because the foreign manufacturer’s role as the pay-to party on the invoice does not create legal liability for unpaid duties under the cited authority. Option C is incorrect because the consignee, who merely receives the goods, is not the IOR and thus does not incur liability for duties under the regulation.
October 2025, Q67. An Irish golf accessory manufacturer, acting as the importer of record, imports golf balls to give away as a promotion at a tournament it is sponsoring. Because there is no sale at the time of import, what value must be listed on the invoice?
- AThe value calculated based on the manufacturer's average shipment value for the last 12 months.
- BThe highest value the manufacture has received for the sale of similar goods.
- CThere is no value because there is no sale.
- DThe value as if the manufacturer sold the golf balls to an importer in the ordinary course of trade.
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 152.101(b) mandates that the value for customs purposes must be determined as if the goods were sold to an importer in the ordinary course of trade, regardless of whether a sale actually occurs. This ensures consistency in valuation and prevents underreporting of value for duty purposes. Option C is incorrect because the absence of a sale does not exempt the importer from providing a value; the regulations require a hypothetical value based on market conditions. Options A and B are not supported by the cited authority, as they rely on arbitrary or non-market-based benchmarks rather than the standard valuation rule.
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