CBLEsim

Title 19 CFR · 72 questions in the bank

19 CFR Part 141 — Entry of Merchandise

Every released customs broker license exam question in the CBLEsim bank that tests 19 CFR Part 141. Drawn from 14 released sittings, April 2019 through October 2025.

Sections of this part with their own question sets

Other questions from Part 141

April 2019, Q16. Which answer below identifies all circumstances whereby a U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) conditional release is considered terminated for food, drugs, devices, cosmetics, and tobacco products imported pursuant to section 801(a) of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act [21 U.S.C. 381(a)], as amended?

  1. AThe conditional release has not been extended in accordance with 19 C.F.R. 141.113(c)(2) and: (1) the FDA issues a notice of refusal of admission; or (2) the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed; or (3) more than 30 days have passed since the date of release.
  2. BThe importer has presented documentation to the FDA demonstrating that the merchandise is properly licensed and in compliance.
  3. CThe conditional release has not been extended in accordance with 19 C.F.R. 141.113(c)(2), and: (1) the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed; or (2) more than 15 days have passed since the date of release.
  4. DThe FDA has written to the importer acknowledging receipt of documentation demonstrating that the merchandise is properly licensed and in compliance.
  5. ENone of the above.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.113(c)

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.113(c) specifies that a conditional release for food, drugs, etc., terminates if the release is not extended, the FDA issues a notice of refusal of admission, the FDA issues a notice that the merchandise may proceed (which effectively ends the conditional status), or 30 days have passed since release. Options B and D incorrectly suggest termination based on documentation presented to the FDA, which is not a termination condition under the cited rule. Option C incorrectly references a 15-day period instead of the 30-day period required by 19 CFR 141.113(c)(2).

April 2022, Q26. The chemical compounds, petroleum coke and petroleum bitumen, are classified under HTS heading 2713. What additional information must an invoice covering a shipment of these goods contain?

  1. ATrade name and percentage by weight of each component
  2. BAny metallic element and percentage thereof
  3. CStatement of weight and color
  4. DIntended use and Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number
  5. EWhether it is a dye and what material it is applied to
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.89(a)

The correct answer is D) Intended use and Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) number. 19 CFR 141.89(a) lists extra invoice requirements by class of merchandise, and the entry for chemicals reads: "Furnish the use and Chemical Abstracts Service number of chemical compounds classified in Chapters 27, 28 and 29, HTSUS." Petroleum coke and petroleum bitumen sit in heading 2713, which is in Chapter 27, so both pieces are required. The other choices are real 141.89 requirements attached to different goods, which is what makes them tempting: percentage by weight of each component belongs to certain textile and alloy entries, metallic elements to iron and steel, and colour and dye questions to heading 3204 products. None of them attaches to Chapter 27 chemicals.

April 2022, Q30. Which CBP Form may be used for giving power of attorney (POA) to transact customs business?

  1. ACBP Form 3461
  2. BCBP Form 5291
  3. CCBP Form 7501
  4. DCBP Form 7512B
  5. ECBP Form 7523
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.32

The correct answer is B) CBP Form 5291 because 19 CFR 141.32 explicitly states that this form may be used for granting power of attorney to transact customs business. The regulation also clarifies that any other power of attorney must meet specific criteria, such as being a general or limited power of attorney with explicit terms. The other options are not mentioned in the cited authority, so they are not valid for this purpose.

April 2022, Q68. When may a Power of Attorney (POA) be revoked?

  1. APrior to being submitted to CBP
  2. BWithin 30 days from execution
  3. CUpon written approval by the port director
  4. DAt any time by written notice given to and received by the port director
  5. EIt may not be revoked
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.35

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 explicitly states that a POA may be revoked "at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP," which aligns with option D. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not limit revocation to before submission; revocation is allowed at any time. Option B is unsupported as the 30-day period is not mentioned in the cited authority. Option C is incorrect because revocation does not require port director approval, only written notice. Option E is false because the regulation clearly permits revocation.

April 2023, Q34. Which of the following statements is TRUE under the following facts? On September 1, 2022, a broker filed a type 02 entry for a shipment from England of 4,000 kilograms of tobacco under 2401.10.63 with 23.9 cents per kilogram duty. Concurrently, the broker filed the entry summary data and scheduled payment on a daily statement with a payment date of September 13, 2022. The release date is September 1, 2022, as the tobacco quota for the United Kingdom was not full. By September 13, 2022, the unliquidated entry summary is in accepted status, CBP control, and fully paid. On October 18, 2022, the importer requested that the broker file a post-summary correction the next day to adjust the value of the entry summary because the invoice was in British Pounds and the foreign currency was not converted to U.S. Dollars before the broker reported entered value on the entry summary.

  1. AThe broker will call the Port of Entry to request a pen-and-ink change instead of filing a post-summary correction (PSC), as non-revenue changes to entry summary data are not made using the PSC process.
  2. BThe broker will file a PSC without reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota because a PSC filed on October 19, 2022 is within the original quota period.
  3. CThe broker will file a PSC on October 19, 2022 after reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota because a PSC filed on October 19, 2022 is outside the original quota period.
  4. DThe broker will file a PSC on October 27, 2022 after reserving the quota with Headquarters Quota on October 19, 2022, because the broker must wait at least five (5) days after reserving the quota to file the PSC.
  5. EThe broker will contact the Center on October 19, 2022 and request that the entry summary be rejected, because non-revenue changes to quota entries are made when entry summary data is refiled in response to a reject notice.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: ACE BRPD Chapters 7 8, Additional US Note 5 to Chapter 20 HTSUS, 19 CFR 141.64

The correct answer is C because the post-summary correction (PSC) is filed on October 19, 2022, which is outside the original quota period (presumably ending September 30, 2022), requiring the broker to reserve the quota with Headquarters Quota before filing the PSC. Option B is incorrect because the PSC is not within the original quota period. Option D is incorrect because there is no requirement to wait five days after reserving the quota. The authority (19 CFR 141.64 and Additional US Note 5 to Chapter 20 HTSUS) governs quota reservations for PSCs outside the original quota period.

April 2023, Q54. What is the latest date CBP can demand that the following shipment be returned to CBP custody? A shipment of textile products cl aiming country of origin Hong Kong arrived on March 7, 2022 and was released on March 8, 2022. The entry summary was filed on March 18, 2022. On March 21, 2022, the Center di rector finds that the textile product is not entitled to admission into the commerce of the United States because the country of origin was not accurately represented as the entry summary should have listed People’s Republic of China as the country of origin.

  1. AMarch 22, 2022
  2. BApril 7, 2022
  3. CApril 20, 2022
  4. DSeptember 4, 2022
  5. ESeptember 17, 2022
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.113(b)

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.113(b) establishes an 180-day conditional release period for textiles, during which CBP may demand return if the country of origin was inaccurately represented. The shipment was released on March 8, 2022, so the 180-day period ends on September 4, 2022. Options A and B incorrectly apply a 30-day rule from 141.113(a), which governs marking issues, not country-of-origin misrepresentation for textiles. Options C and E misinterpret the timeline or miscalculate the 180-day period.

April 2023, Q55. As defined in the Customs Regulations, what does "released conditionally" mean?

  1. AAny release from CBP custody before liquidation.
  2. BThe bond is a temporary importation bond.
  3. CAny admission of merchandise to a Foreign Trade Zone.
  4. DAny release of merchandise to the General Order warehouse.
  5. EThe release requires further action, such as marking.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.0a(i)

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.0a(i) explicitly defines "released conditionally" as "any release from CBP custody before liquidation," which aligns directly with option A. Option B refers to a temporary importation bond, which is addressed in 19 CFR 141.0a(h), not the definition of "released conditionally." Option C involves admission to a Foreign Trade Zone, which is governed by separate provisions not mentioned in the cited text. Option D pertains to General Order warehouses, a term not defined in the cited authority. Option E suggests further action is required, but the regulation does not specify such conditions as part of the definition.

April 2025, Q4. For which company below will the customs broker be required to obtain documentation establishing the authority of the grantor to execute a power of attorney?

  1. AGrayson, Grayson, and Drew, a corporation organized in the U.S. Virgin Islands
  2. BLightning Spirits, a corporation organized in Delaware, United States
  3. CCoope Puerto Thiel, a corporation organized, located and registered only in Costa Rica
  4. DTerra Firma Landscape, a corporation organized in and located in Puerto Rico
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.31(d); 19 CFR 141.37; 19 CFR 101.1

The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.31(d) defines a "nonresident" as a corporation not incorporated within the U.S. Customs territory or the Virgin Islands, requiring documentation to verify the grantor’s authority. Coope Puerto Thiel, being incorporated in Costa Rica, is a nonresident, necessitating such documentation. Options A and D are residents (Virgin Islands and Puerto Rico are within the Customs territory), and B is a U.S. corporation, so none of these require additional verification under 19 CFR 101.1. The other options are tempting but incorrect because they fall under the "resident" category, which is exempt from this documentation requirement.

April 2025, Q22. X-Rocs, Inc. (X-Rocs) imports multifunction digital office machines (copiers) with copy, print, fax, and scan functions to the U.S. from Korea. X-Rocs has a valid limited power of attorney (POA) with Expeditious Customs Brokers, LLC (Expeditious), limited to entering imported merchandise for consumption. Four years after importation, if the copiers have not sold in the U.S., X-Rocs exports the copiers to India. X-Rocs has a valid limited POA with Trade Experts Customs Brokers (TradeEx) for its drawback program. X-Rocs’ Vice President has signed a POA granting X-Rocs’ Trade Compliance Manager, who is not a licensed customs broker, the power to sign contracts and business documents on behalf of X-Rocs. A broker at TradeEx executed a POA with an unlicensed employee to sign customs business documents on behalf of TradeEx. Of the list below, who does NOT have the authority to sign drawback entries submitted to CBP on behalf of X-Rocs?

  1. AThe Vice-President of X-Rocs
  2. BAn employee of Expeditious
  3. CThe Trade Compliance Manager with X-Rocs
  4. DThe unlicensed employee of TradeEx
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.0a(f); 19 CFR 190.2; 19 CFR 190.6(a)-(b)

The correct answer is B because an employee of Expeditious does not have the authority to sign drawback entries. Under 19 CFR 190.6(a)-(b), only licensed customs brokers with a valid power of attorney (POA) can act on behalf of importers for customs entries, including drawback. Expeditious’ POA with X-Rocs is limited to entering merchandise for consumption, not drawback, and the employee is not a licensed broker. The Vice-President (A) may sign as an authorized representative under 19 CFR 190.6(a), the Trade Compliance Manager (C) lacks broker status but is not directly involved in drawback entries, and the unlicensed TradeEx employee (D) is not a broker, but the question hinges on the specific limitation of Expeditious’ POA.

April 2025, Q49. Which of the following best defines "entry summary?”

  1. AAny other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law and regulations are met.
  2. BThe voluntary delivery to the appropriate CBP officer or electronic submission to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) or any other CBP authorized electronic data interchange system of the documentation or data for preliminary review of entry documentation or data for other purposes.
  3. CThe imported merchandise which has not been properly released from Customs custody in a Customs territory.
  4. DThe delivery to CBP, including electronic submission to ACE or any other CBP-authorized electronic data interchange system, of the entry documentation or data required by section 484(a), Tariff Act of 1930, as amended (19 USC 1484(a)), to obtain the release of merchandise.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.0a(b)

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.0a(b) explicitly defines "entry summary" as "any other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law or regulation are met." This matches the language in option A. Option B describes "submission," as defined in 19 CFR 141.0a(c), which involves voluntary delivery for preliminary review, not the broader purpose of an entry summary. Option C refers to "unreleased merchandise," a term not defined in the cited text. Option D defines "filing" under 19 CFR 141.0a(d)(1), which focuses on obtaining merchandise release, not the statistical and duty-assessment functions of an entry summary.

April 2025, Q54. Which of the following goods are NOT specifically exempted from formal entry procedures under 19 CFR 141.4(b)?

  1. AAn aircraft part from a United States-registered aircraft that was removed during an emergency repair while being used abroad in international traffic. The part was returned to the United States within 45 days after removal and did not leave the custody of the carrier or foreign customs service while abroad.
  2. BThe corpse of a U.S. citizen, including a coffin and accompanying flowers.
  3. CA yacht purchased in Mexico and brought into United States customs territory by a U.S. resident for the purpose of commercial cruises.
  4. DA truck cab and trailer transporting Canadian lumber into the customs territory of the United States and returning to Canada after the shipment of lumber has been delivered.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.4(b)

The correct answer is C because the yacht purchased in Mexico for commercial use does not fall under any of the exemptions listed in 19 CFR 141.4(b). The exceptions include aircraft parts returned under specific conditions (A), human remains and associated items (B), and vehicles used in international traffic (D). However, the yacht is not exempt as it is not classified as a vessel in international traffic under the HTSUS exemptions or as an instrument of international traffic under §10.41a/b. The regulation does not specifically exempt commercial yachts, requiring formal entry procedures. Option A is exempt under General Note 3(e) for returned aircraft parts. Option B is exempt for human remains under General Note 3(e). Option D is exempt as a vehicle used in international traffic under §10.41a/b.

April 2026, Q21. You have received a “documents required” notification after the entry summary was filed. In reviewing the invoice, you handwrite additional information on the invoice to provide all required information, including the addition to the description of the bedspreads that the bedspread contains edging. Which ONE of the regulations listed below contains the requirement that prompted you to change the description as shown on the invoice provided?

  1. A19 CFR 141.86(a)(3)
  2. B19 CFR 141.86(h)(3)
  3. C19 CFR 141.89(a)
  4. D19 CFR 142.6(a)(4)
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.89(a)

The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.89(a) explicitly requires invoices for textile articles, including bedspreads, to include specific descriptive details such as the presence of edging, which aligns with the scenario where the broker added this information. The other options do not address textile-specific invoice requirements. For example, 19 CFR 141.86(a)(3) and (h)(3) pertain to different categories of merchandise (e.g., aluminum, rubber) and do not mention textile descriptions. 19 CFR 142.6(a)(4) relates to entry procedures, not invoice content for textiles. The cited text under 141.89(a) directly supports the requirement to describe edging in textile items.

April 2026, Q50. Merchandise arrived at a port of entry and has been unladen from a vessel. No entry or entry summary has been filed. The merchandise can remain on the dock before it is deemed not timely entered for _____ days and the carrier has to give notice of unentered merchandise to a bonded warehouse certified by the port director as qualified to receive general order merchandise no later than _____ calendar days after landing.

  1. A20; 20
  2. B15; 20
  3. C30; 60
  4. D10; 30
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.5; 19 CFR 4.37(a); 19 CFR 4.37(c)

The correct answer is B) 15; 20 because 19 CFR 141.5 mandates that merchandise must be entered within 15 calendar days after landing, and 19 CFR 4.37(a) and (c) require the carrier to notify the bonded warehouse within 20 calendar days after landing. Other options are incorrect because they misstate the 15-day entry deadline or the 20-day notice requirement, which are explicitly defined in the cited regulations.

April 2026, Q62. Jane Doe is filing an entry summary. One line item is for a woman's dress, which is a woven garment of three different colors. In addition to the general information required on the accompanying commercial invoice, what other information that is specific to the dress must be provided on the invoice by regulation?

  1. AWhether the dress contains any embroidery, lace, braid, edging, trimming, piping or applique work
  2. BWhether the dress has pockets sewn in
  3. CThe exact dimensions (length and width) of the dress
  4. DWhether there are two or more colors in the warp and/or filling in the dress fabric
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.89(a)

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.89(a) explicitly requires woven garments to indicate whether the fabric contains "two or more colors in the warp and/or filling," which directly applies to the dress described. Option A is not required for general dresses, as the regulation specifies embroidery details only for all-white T-shirts. Option B pertains to pockets, which are mentioned only for T-shirts, not dresses. Option C applies to mufflers, not dresses, as the regulation mandates exact dimensions only for that category.

April 2026, Q63. Johnson Consolidated Freight, Inc. (JCF) is the nominal consignee for a shipment of empty glass bottles, consigned to IPA (USA), Inc. (IPA), a beer brewer. JCF has an appropriate power of attorney with IPA. JCF contracts with Knowledgeable Customs Brokers, LLC (Knowledgeable) for Knowledgeable to file the entry and entry summary as the importer of record for the shipment. Knowledgeable obtains power of attorney from IPA and files the entry and entry summary with itself as the importer of record and obligates its basic importation and entry bond. Which one of the steps below is NOT one of the steps Knowledgeable will take to be relieved of liability for increased and additional duties owed under the facts above?

  1. AKnowledgeable will file a declaration within 90 days from the time of entry with CBP made by the actual owner of the merchandise acknowledging that the owner will pay all additional and increased duties along with a bond of the actual owner containing bond conditions set forth in 19 CFR 113.62.
  2. BKnowledgeable will furnish within 90 days from the time of entry copies of the power of attorney documents between Knowledgeable and JCF and Knowledgeable and IPA proving that Knowledgeable had the right to make entry under 19 CFR 141.11.
  3. CKnowledgeable will declare to CBP at the time of filing the entry and entry summary that it is not the actual owner of the goods.
  4. DKnowledgeable will furnish to CBP at the time of filing the entry and entry summary the name and address of the actual owner of the goods.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: Right to Make Entry Directive (CD 3530-002A) Section 5.1.3; 19 CFR 141.19; 19 CFR 141.20

The correct answer is B because the regulation (19 CFR 141.19) does not require furnishing power of attorney documents to CBP as a step to relieve liability. Instead, it focuses on declarations by the consignee or agent and charges against the bond. Option A is valid because filing a declaration with the actual owner and a bond under 19 CFR 113.62 is a recognized method to shift liability. Option C is correct because declaring non-ownership at the time of entry is necessary to avoid liability. Option D is valid because providing the actual owner’s name and address is standard practice when the importer of record is not the owner. The cited authority does not mention power of attorney documents as a required step for relieving liability.

May 2024, Q3. ZXY Importer (ZXY) is switching customs brokerages. ZXY is terminating its relationship with Slick Customs Brokerage Co. (Slick). The power of attorney contract between ZXY and Slick was granted for an unlimited time period. Which of the following parings correctly indicates who may revoke the power of attorney between ZXY as the principal and Slick as the agent?

  1. APrincipal Yes, Agent No
  2. BPrincipal No, Agent Yes
  3. CPrincipal No, Agent No
  4. DPrincipal Yes, Agent Yes
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.35

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 states that any power of attorney may be revoked at any time by written notice to CBP, without specifying that only the principal may revoke it. This implies both parties (principal and agent) may initiate revocation, as the regulation does not restrict revocation to one party. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they assume limitations not stated in the regulation; the text does not prohibit the agent from revoking or require the principal’s consent for revocation.

May 2024, Q16. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding country of origin?

  1. AThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the air cargo manifest under 19 CFR 122.48.
  2. BThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the commercial invoice under 19 CFR 141.86.
  3. CThe country of origin of cargo is required data on the air waybill under 19 CFR 141.11.
  4. DThe country of origin of the Luxemburg Digital Press is China because Beijing was the port of departure.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.86(a)(10)

The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.86(a)(10) explicitly requires the country of origin of merchandise to be stated on the commercial invoice for imported goods. Options A and C are incorrect because the cited authority does not mention the air cargo manifest or air waybill requiring country of origin data; these documents are governed by other regulations not referenced here. Option D is incorrect because the country of origin is determined by production location, not the port of departure, and the cited authority does not address this rule.

May 2024, Q51. What is the earliest possible time that duties and the liability for their payment accrue on imported commercial goods arriving by vessel?

  1. AUpon arrival of the importing vessel within a Customs port of entry with the intent then and there to unlade.
  2. BUpon the departure of the importing vessel from a foreign port of lading with the intent to unlade at a U.S. Customs port of entry.
  3. CUpon the filing of the entry information on Form 3461 or its electronic equivalent and obtaining a clearance from CBP.
  4. DUpon filing an entry summary on CBP Form 7501 or its electronic equivalent and scheduling the duty payment on a statement.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.1

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.1(a) explicitly states that duties and liability for their payment accrue upon the arrival of the importing vessel within a Customs port with the intent to unlade. This aligns directly with option A, which captures the precise moment of accrual as defined by the regulation. Option B is incorrect because the departure from a foreign port does not trigger duty accrual under the cited authority, which focuses on arrival within the U.S. Option C and D refer to procedural steps (filing forms or scheduling payments) that occur after duty accrual, not the moment it begins. The regulation does not tie accrual to entry filing or payment scheduling, making those options irrelevant to the question.

May 2024, Q61. The following types of evidence of right to make entry for importations by common carrier when merchandise is not released directly to the carrier are acceptable types of evidence EXCEPT:

  1. AA bill of lading or air waybill properly endorsed when required.
  2. BAn extract from a bill of lading or air waybill that has not been certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry.
  3. CA certified duplicate bill of lading or air waybill with the carrier's certificate in the required form.
  4. DA shipping receipt or other document presented in lieu of a bill of lading when entry is made by the actual consignee in person.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.11

The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.11(a)(2) explicitly requires that any extract from a bill of lading or air waybill must be certified to be genuine by the carrier; an un certified extract does not satisfy this requirement. Options A, C, and D are acceptable because they align with the regulations: A involves a properly endorsed bill of lading, C refers to a certified duplicate with the carrier’s certificate, and D describes a shipping receipt used by the consignee in person, which is permitted under 19 CFR 141.11(a)(4). The absence of certification in B disqualifies it as valid evidence.

May 2024, Q62. Use the provided calendar and the following entry record information to determine the answer with the correct dates in order for 1) entry filing due date, 2) final possible post-summary correction (PSC) submission date without an extension, and 3) final protest submission date. If any single date in the series is incorrect, the entire answer is incorrect. • The shipment is of commercial goods whose entered value exceeds $2,500.00, and it arrived at the port of entry on February 15, 2024. • The date of entry is the same date that the broker filed entry and is February 16, 2024. • Broker filed entry summary and paid the amount due on March 4, 2024. • Broker filed a PSC on April 15, 2024, requesting a refund and accelerated liquidation. CBP disagreed in part with the PSC, and the entry liquidated on April 26, 2024.

  1. AMarch 1, 2024; December 12, 2024; October 23, 2024
  2. BFebruary 15, 2024; April 15, 2024; August 15, 2024
  3. CMarch 7, 2024; December 10, 2024;July 25, 2024
  4. DMarch 1, 2024; December 10, 2024; October 23, 2024
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.5; ACE BRPD, Chapter 6; 19 CFR 174.12(e)

The credited answer is A) March 1, 2024; December 12, 2024; October 23, 2024. The cited text reads: Merchandise for which entry is required will be entered within 15 calendar days after landing from a vessel, aircraft or vehicle, or after arrival at the port of destination in the case of merchandise transported in bond. Merchandise for which timely entry is not made will be treated in accordance with § 4.37 or § 122.50 or § 123.10 of this chapter.

October 2019, Q1. What is a customs broker required to have in order to conduct customs business on behalf of others?

  1. AA copy of the Customs Regulations
  2. BCommercial invoices
  3. CPayment of services rendered
  4. DA valid power of attorney
  5. EAll of the above
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.46, 19 CFR 141.83

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.46 explicitly requires a customs broker to obtain a valid power of attorney before acting on behalf of a principal, establishing this as a legal prerequisite for conducting customs business. Options A, B, and C are not mandated by the cited authority: having the Customs Regulations (A) is not a requirement for brokerage authority, commercial invoices (B) are transactional documents, not legal prerequisites, and payment for services (C) pertains to compensation, not legal standing. Option E is incorrect because it aggregates non-mandatory elements with the correct requirement.

October 2019, Q18. A nonresident corporation, which is not incorporated within the customs territory of the United States or in the Virgin Islands of the United States, wishes to enter merchandise for consumption. The nonresident corporation will not file the entry from a remote location pursuant to subpart E of Part 143 of title 19 of the C.F.R. In order to enter the merchandise for consumption, which of the following is CORRECT?

  1. AThe nonresident corporation must have a non-resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located.
  2. BThe nonresident corporation must have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is not authorized to accept service of process against that corporation.
  3. CThe nonresident corporation must file a bond, but the bond does not have to contain the bond conditions set forth in 19 C.F.R. § 113.62.
  4. DThe nonresident corporation must file a bond having a nonresident corporate surety to secure the payment of any increased and additional duties which may be found due.
  5. EThe nonresident corporation must have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is authorized to accept service of process against that corporation.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: E  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.18

The correct answer is E because 19 CFR 141.18(a) explicitly requires a nonresident corporation to have a resident agent in the state where the port of entry is located who is authorized to accept service of process. This aligns with the regulation’s clear language. Option A is incorrect because it refers to a non-resident agent, which is not required. Option B is incorrect because the agent must be authorized to accept service of process, not prohibited from doing so. Option C is wrong because the bond must contain the conditions in 19 CFR § 113.62, as stated in 19 CFR 141.18(b). Option D is incorrect because the bond must have a resident corporate surety, not a nonresident one.

October 2019, Q63. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding a power of attorney?

  1. AA power of attorney must be legible.
  2. BA power of attorney must identify a Grantor and a Grantee.
  3. CA power of attorney may be completed on CBP Form 5291 “Power of Attorney.”
  4. DA power of attorney must identify only nonresident principals.
  5. EA power of attorney must include the statement to accept service of process against a nonresident principal.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.31 (d)

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.31(d) defines "nonresident" but does not restrict power of attorney documents to nonresident principals. A power of attorney may apply to either resident or nonresident principals, making the statement in D incorrect. Options A, B, and C are correct: legibility is required for all legal documents, a power of attorney must identify the Grantor and Grantee, and CBP Form 5291 is an acceptable form. Option E is also correct because the regulation implicitly requires such a statement for nonresident principals, as service of process is a legal necessity. The error in D lies in its exclusive focus on nonresidents, which contradicts the regulation’s inclusive definition.

October 2020 (AM), Q16. Which of the following is NOT an exception to the requirement that estimated duties shall either be deposited with CBP at the time of the filing of the entry documentation or the entry summary documentation when it serves as both the entry and entry summary (or be transmitted to Customs according to the statement processing method found in the applicable Customs regulations)?

  1. AMerchandise entered for warehouse
  2. BInformal mail entry
  3. CTemporary importation of goods under bond
  4. DAppraisement entry
  5. EEntry for consumption
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: E  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.101(a)-(e)

The correct answer is E) Entry for consumption because the exceptions listed in 19 CFR 141.101(a)-(e) explicitly exclude this scenario. The cited authority details exceptions for warehouse entries (a)-(b), informal mail entries (c), appraisement entries (d), and temporary or bonded entries (e), but does not mention "entry for consumption" as an exception. Since the requirement applies unless an exception is explicitly stated, entry for consumption falls under the general rule requiring estimated duty deposits. The other options are explicitly excluded by the text of 19 CFR 141.101.

October 2020 (AM), Q20. Per Section 19 CFR Part 141, which of the below is TRUE?

  1. AEntry is required on telecommunications transmissions
  2. BMerchandise for which entry is required will be entered within 10 calendar days after landing from a vessel, aircraft or vehicle, or after arrival at the port of destination in which merchandise is transported in bond
  3. CWhen merchandise is not imported by a common carrier, possession of the merchandise at the time of arrival in the United States shall be deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry
  4. DA power of attorney to a minor shall be accepted
  5. EA trustee may not execute a power of attorney for the transaction of Customs business incident to the trusteeship
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.12, 19 CFR 141.4(b)(1), 19 CFR 141.5, 19 CFR 141.31(c), 19 CFR 141.40, HTSUS General Note 3(e)(ii)

The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 141.12 explicitly states that possession of merchandise at the time of arrival in the U.S. is deemed sufficient evidence of the right to make entry when the merchandise is not imported by a common carrier. Option A is incorrect because 19 CFR Part 141 does not address entry requirements for telecommunications transmissions. Option B misstates the timeline, as 19 CFR 141.4(b)(1) does not specify a 10-day period for entry. Option D is unsupported, as 19 CFR 141.31(c) and 141.40 do not mention acceptance of powers of attorney for minors. Option E is incorrect because 19 CFR 141.40 allows a trustee to execute a power of attorney for Customs business.

October 2020 (AM), Q21. When may a power of attorney be revoked?

  1. APrior to being submitted to CBP
  2. BWithin 30 days from execution
  3. CUpon written approval by the Port Director
  4. DAt any time by written notice given to and received by CBP
  5. EIt may not be revoked
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.35

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.35 explicitly states that a power of attorney may be revoked "at any time by written notice given to and received by CBP," without time limits or additional approvals. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not restrict revocation to before submission; revocation is allowed even after submission. Option B is unsupported as the 30-day period is not mentioned in the cited text. Option C is incorrect because the regulation does not require Port Director approval for revocation. Option E is directly contradicted by the regulation, which permits revocation at any time.

October 2020 (PM), Q21. ___________ is used to give power of attorney to conduct Customs business on behalf of another?

  1. ACBP Form 368
  2. BCBP Form 3347
  3. CCBP Form 4647
  4. DCBP Form 5291
  5. ECBP Form 7501
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: CBP Form 5291, 19 CFR 141.32

The correct answer is D) CBP Form 5291 because 19 CFR 141.32 explicitly states that this form is used to grant power of attorney for Customs business. The text provides an example of the form’s content, confirming its role in authorizing agents to act on behalf of principals. The other options (A, B, C, E) are not referenced in the cited authority, so they lack support from the cited regulation.

October 2021, Q19. An individual who qualifies as an importer of record under 19 USC 1484 may authorize an unpaid agent to enter merchandise on their behalf, so long as ___________________.

  1. AThe merchandise is a gift.
  2. BThe authorization is made in writing, no power of attorney is required, and the importer is not acting on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association.
  3. CThe individual is a regular importer, the appointment is for a single article of merchandise, and the agent is a relative.
  4. DThe individual is not acting on behalf of a corporate entity, and the shipment is valued at or under $800.
  5. EThe individual is not a regular importer, the appointment is for a single non-commercial shipment, and the authorization is made by executing a power of attorney.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: E  · Authority: Right to Make Entry Section 5.14.1, 19 CFR 141.33

The correct answer is E because 19 CFR 141.33 explicitly states that an individual who is not a regular importer may appoint an unpaid agent by executing a power of attorney for a single non-commercial shipment. This matches E’s conditions. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not limit authorization to gifts; it applies to any non-commercial shipment. Option B is wrong because a power of attorney is required, not excluded. Option C is invalid because the individual must not be a regular importer, and the agent’s relationship is not specified. Option D is incorrect because the regulation does not mention a 800 value threshold.

October 2021, Q20. Which piece of information is NOT a requirement on a commercial invoice?

  1. AAll rebates, drawbacks, and bounties, separately itemized, allowed upon the exportation of the merchandise
  2. BAn itemized list by name and amount of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation, if included in the invoice price, and so identified
  3. CThe kind of currency, whether gold, silver or paper
  4. DThe port of entry to which the merchandise is destined
  5. EThe name of a responsible employee of the exporter, who has knowledge, or who can readily obtain knowledge, of the transaction
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.83(c), 19 CFR 141.86(a)(1), (a)(7), (a)(8), (a)(9), j

The correct answer is B. 19 CFR 141.86(a)(8) requires all charges upon the merchandise to be itemized by name and amount, but it then carves this out expressly: "The cost of packing, cases, containers, and inland freight to the port of exportation need not be itemized by amount if included in the invoice price, and so identified." Option B describes exactly that situation, and in it the itemized list is the one thing the regulation says you do not have to provide. The rest are required. The port of entry to which the merchandise is destined is (a)(1), which is D. The kind of currency, whether gold, silver or paper, is (a)(7), which is C. Rebates, drawbacks and bounties allowed on exportation, separately itemized, are (a)(9), which is A. And 141.86(j) requires every invoice to identify by name a responsible employee of the exporter with knowledge of the transaction, which is E.

October 2021, Q51. C BP may demand that released merchandise be redelivered if it fails to comply with laws or regulations governing its admission into the United States. This may include admissibility determinations by other government agencies. CBP may also seek redelivery for the purposes of examination (including the failure to provide a sample) or country of origin marking. If the merchandise is not redelivered or the redelivery is untimely, the liquidated damages claim is set at the ___________________of the merchandise. If the merchandise is prohibited, restricted, or contains alcoholic beverages, the demand amount is _______________________.

  1. ATotal duty; 3 times the total duty
  2. BEntered value; 3 times the entered value
  3. CEntered value; 2 times the entered value
  4. DTotal duty, taxes and fees (minus the harbor maintenance fee); 2 times the total duty taxes and fees (minus the harbor maintenance fee)
  5. EEntered value times 0.01%; entered value times 0.01% + $100.00
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.113, 19 CFR 113.62(d)

The correct answer is B) Entered value; 3 times the entered value. Both figures come from one sentence in 19 CFR 113.62(n)(1), the default condition of the basic importation and entry bond: the obligors agree to pay liquidated damages "equal to the value of the merchandise involved in the default, or three times the value of the merchandise involved in the default if the merchandise is restricted or prohibited merchandise or alcoholic beverages". The redelivery demand itself rests on 19 CFR 113.62(d), the agreement to redeliver merchandise released conditionally where it fails to comply with the laws governing admission, must be examined, or must be marked. 19 CFR 141.113 is the recall mechanism. The two-tier damages structure, ordinary value versus three times value for restricted or prohibited goods and alcohol, is what the question is testing, and only 113.62(n)(1) states both halves.

October 2022, Q7. Which Customs Regulation provides the process for separating quantities of merchandise into separate entries and provides the exception to the rule that all merchandise arriving on one conveyance and consigned to one consignee must be included on one entry, under the facts of this Practical Exercise?

  1. ANone, because the importer or broker decides how many entries to file for a quantity of merchandise arriving on one conveyance and consigned to one consignee.
  2. B19 CFR, Part 10
  3. C19 CFR 141.51
  4. D19 CFR 141.52(g)
  5. E19 CFR 141.54(a)
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.52(g)

The correct answer is D) 19 CFR 141.52(g), as this section explicitly permits separate entries for portions of merchandise under specific conditions, including when the consignment contains merchandise subject to entry under a bond, such as temporary importation. The cited authority states that the Center director may approve such separations if no prejudice to Customs interests occurs. Option A is incorrect because the regulation does not grant unilateral authority to the importer or broker; approval by the Center director is required. Options B, C, and E refer to sections not directly addressing the exception for bonded entries, which is the focus of 19 CFR 141.52(g).

October 2022, Q10. CBP has issued a CBP Form 28, Request for Information, for the Temporary Importation under Bond (TIB) entry that ABC Customs Brokers, LLC (ABC) filed for the importer of record (IOR) Creasioni Marchesa. The IOR does not have an Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) account. CBP has issued the electronic CBP Form 28 dated October 28, 2022, with a 30-day response time and mailed a courtesy copy only to ABC. CBP did not provide the IOR with a copy of the CBP Form 28. Note from the facts above, that ABC has a valid Power of Attorney with the IOR. Which of the following is FALSE?

  1. AUnder the facts provided, the IOR did not receive proper notice of the CBP Form 28, Request for Information, because CBP failed to send a paper copy to the IOR in Italy or to ensure electronic delivery to the IOR in Italy.
  2. BIf the IOR fails to respond to the CBP Form 28, Request for Information, within the 30-day response time, CBP may file a liquidated damages case against the IOR’s bond for not filing a timely response.
  3. CIn a valid Power of Attorney agreement, where a nonresident importer, such as an IOR based in a foreign country, is the principal, the agent (Customs broker) is designated to receive service of process on behalf of the nonresident importer; therefore, sending a copy of a CBP form to the agent has the effect of sending a copy to the principal.
  4. DIn a valid Power of Attorney agreement, where a corporate nonresident importer, such as corporation based in a foreign country, is the principal, the agent has an obligation to attach supplemental documentation establishing the authority of the grantor to sign the Power of Attorney agreement on behalf of the principal.
  5. EABC may respond on behalf of the IOR by providing the information requested on the CBP Form 28 by uploading the documents to Document Imaging System (DIS), through the ACE Portal, or by mailing the response to the requester indicated on the CBP Form 28.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: ACE BRPD, 19 CFR 141.36, 113.62(c), 172.1, and 141.37

The correct answer is A because the IOR's lack of an ACE account does not negate the validity of the Power of Attorney, which designates ABC as the agent to receive service of process on behalf of the IOR. Under 19 CFR 141.36, a valid Power of Attorney allows the agent to accept service, so CBP’s delivery to ABC satisfies notice requirements. Option A is false because it incorrectly assumes CBP must send a paper copy to the IOR, which is unnecessary when a valid Power of Attorney exists. Option B is correct because failure to respond may trigger liquidated damages under 19 CFR 113.62(c). Option C is correct as 19 CFR 141.37 confirms that service to the agent is equivalent to service to the principal. Option D is correct because 19 CFR 172.1 requires documentation proving the grantor’s authority. Option E is correct because 19 CFR 141.36 permits responses via electronic or paper means.

October 2022, Q64. A duly licensed broker has a power of attorney (POA) on file from Valley Computer Co., Inc. (Valley, Inc.), a publicly traded California corporation. Michael Valley called the broker and advised that he has reorganized Valley, Inc. and it is now a privately held corporation, incorporated in Delaware and it is also called Valley Computer Co., Inc. (Valley Delaware). Michael Valley, in his capacity as President of Valley Delaware, wants the broker to clear a shipment on an ocean cargo ship that will arrive in 20 days. Before entry can be filed, what action must the broker take regarding the POA?

  1. ANo action need be taken because the Valley, Inc. POA does not expire.
  2. BNo action need be taken because the standard POA language provides that successor companies are covered by the terms of the agreement with the Customs broker.
  3. CReview the POA and, if the POA was signed by Michael Valley as an officer of the California corporation, no additional action need be taken.
  4. DRequest a POA termination letter from the California corporation named Valley Computer Co., Inc.
  5. ERequest a new POA from Michael Valley and the Delaware corporation named Valley Computer Co., Inc.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: E  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.46

The correct answer is E because the power of attorney (POA) must be issued by the current principal, which is now Valley Delaware, not the former California corporation. 19 CFR 141.46 requires a valid POA for transacting customs business on behalf of a principal, and the principal is now a different legal entity. Options A and B incorrectly assume the existing POA remains valid despite the change in corporate structure, which is not supported by the regulation. Option C is flawed because the original POA's validity depends on the principal's identity, not the signature of an officer. Option D is irrelevant as the POA is not required to be terminated, but rather replaced with a new one from the current principal.

October 2022, Q65. Which regulation states the rules concerning powers of attorney with respect to filing protests on behalf of importers?

  1. A19 CFR 111.23
  2. B19 CFR 141.31
  3. C19 CFR 174.3
  4. D19 CFR 190.6
  5. E19 CFR 191.6
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.42 19 CFR 174.3

The correct answer is C because the cited authority explicitly states that powers of attorney for filing protests are governed by 19 CFR 174.3. The other options (A, B, D, E) are not mentioned in the cited text and therefore lack direct support from the authority. The question focuses on the specific regulation addressing powers of attorney, which is clearly identified in 19 CFR 174.3.

October 2023, Q4. The Danube Trading Company (Danube Trading) arranges for the importation of monosodium glutamate (“MSG”) for customers in the U.S., including the Saucy Seasonings Corporation (Saucy Seasonings). Danube Trading is not the seller or buyer of the MSG and does not qualify as importer of record. On an entry of MSG, Danube Trading’s customs broker mistakenly listed Danube Trading as the ultimate consignee (as well the importer of record) on the entry summary instead of Saucy Seasonings, the actual owner. If Danube Trading wants to be relieved from statutory liability for the payment of increased and additional duties on the entry, it must declare at the time of the filing of the entry summary or entry documentation that it is not the actual owner of the merchandise, furnish CBP with the name and address of Saucy Seasonings, and file with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically within ninety (90) days from the time of entry, a declaration of Saucy Seasonings acknowledging that the actual owner will pay all additional and increased duties. What is the correct form for the Saucy Seasonings declaration that Danube Trading must file with CBP?

  1. ACBP Form 3173
  2. BCBP Form 3347
  3. CCBP Form 3461
  4. DCBP Form 3495
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.20

The correct answer is B) CBP Form 3347, as 19 CFR 141.20(a)(1) explicitly states that the declaration of the actual owner must be filed on Customs Form 3347. The other options (Forms 3173, 3461, and 3495) are not referenced in the cited authority and thus cannot be correct. The regulation directly ties the required declaration to Form 3347, making it the only valid choice.

October 2023, Q16. Which power of attorney principal is a "nonresident" entity?

  1. ATropical Clothier LLC (a U.S. Virgin Islands registered limited liability company)
  2. BFantasy Footware Co. (a corporation registered in Guam)
  3. CGray & Gray, PC (a professional corporation registered in the District of Columbia)
  4. DAdams & Jefferson (an unregistered partnership with a general partner who resides in Maryland)
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.31(d)

The correct answer is B because the regulation defines a "resident" corporation as one incorporated in the Customs territory of the United States or the Virgin Islands. Fantasy Footware Co. is registered in Guam, which is a U.S. territory within the Customs territory, but the question hinges on whether "registered" equates to "incorporated." However, the regulation explicitly uses "incorporated," not "registered," and the other options (A, C, D) clearly meet the "resident" criteria (Virgin Islands, D.C., or a partnership with a Maryland resident). The tempting wrong options are incorrect because they either meet the "resident" definition (A, C) or involve a partnership with a resident (D), which would still be considered "resident" under 19 CFR 141.31(d).

October 2023, Q18. Which of the following may a licensed organizational broker appoint as a subagent for a resident importer (principal) under a power of attorney that contains express authority to appoint subagents?

  1. AThe broker's licensed officer
  2. BA co-principal
  3. CA port director
  4. DA surety
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.43

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.43(c) explicitly permits a licensed customhouse broker to act through its licensed officers under a power of attorney. The other options are not valid: B) a co-principal is not a subagent and lacks authority under the cited rule; C) a port director is a government official, not a subagent, and D) a surety is unrelated to subagent appointment authority. The rule specifically limits subagent authority to the broker’s licensed officers.

October 2023, Q80. What is the commercial invoice lacking to be compliant with the Customs regulations?

  1. AAn attached accurate English translation
  2. BQuantity in the weights and measures of the country of shipment
  3. CThe time, place, and to whom the merchandise was sold
  4. DThe kind of currency, whether gold, silver, or paper
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.86

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.86(d) explicitly requires that the invoice and all attachments be in English or include an accurate English translation. Without this, the invoice cannot be examined for duty determination. Option B is not required unless weights and measures are necessary to ascertain duties, as stated in 19 CFR 141.86(f), but this is not a universal requirement. Option C is mandated by 19 CFR 141.86(a)(2), which requires details about the sale, but the question focuses on the missing translation. Option D is addressed in 19 CFR 141.86(a)(3), which requires stating the currency type, but this is not the missing element in the scenario.

October 2024, Q52. Non-quota merchandise that is subject to the Section 232 Presidential Proclamation regarding steel and covered by an entry for immediate transportation made at the port of original importation, if entered for consumption at the port designated by the consignee or his agent in such transportation entry without having been taken into custody by the port director for general order under 19 USC 1490, shall be subject to the duty rates in effect when _____.

  1. AThe immediate transportation entry was accepted at the port of original importation.
  2. BThe shipment arrives at the final destination and a consumption entry is filed.
  3. CNever. Immediate transportation entries are not subject to duties because they are not actually entered into commerce.
  4. DThe immediate transportation shipment is destined for the United States (date of export).
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.69(b)

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.69(b) explicitly states that duty rates for merchandise entered for immediate transportation are determined at the time the entry is accepted at the port of original importation, regardless of subsequent events. Option B is incorrect because the regulation does not tie duty rates to the arrival at the final destination or filing of a consumption entry. Option C is wrong because the regulation explicitly applies duty rates to such entries, contradicting the claim that no duties apply. Option D is irrelevant as the date of export is not referenced in the cited authority.

October 2025, Q10. The U.S. Department of Defense (DoD), an agency or office of the United States Government, hires a licensed customs broker for the importation of armor equipment to be used in a new concept unmanned tank style vehicle. The DoD instructs the broker that a power of attorney is NOT required due to the nature and sensitivity of the importation, and the fact that the equipment is for the account of the DoD. Which of the below statements is TRUE?

  1. AWhen merchandise is imported by the DoD it is automatically duty-free.
  2. BThe power of attorney is not required where the DoD is to act as Importer of Record (IOR) due to inherent sensitivities.
  3. CWhen merchandise is imported by a U.S. government agency it is exempt from examination by CBP.
  4. DMerchandise imported by, or for the account of the DoD, is subject to ordinary Customs entry requirements and a Power of attorney is required if a customs broker is used.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.46; 19 CFR 10.100

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.46 mandates that a customs broker must obtain a valid power of attorney before acting on behalf of any principal, including the DoD, regardless of the sensitivity or government ownership of the importation. The authority does not exempt government agencies from this requirement. Option A is incorrect because the HTSUS text does not state that DoD imports are automatically duty-free; duty exemptions depend on specific tariff provisions, not the importer’s identity. Option B is incorrect because 19 CFR 10.100 does not provide exceptions for government agencies based on sensitivity; the power of attorney requirement applies universally. Option C is incorrect because the HTSUS text does not mention exemptions from CBP examination for government imports; examination requirements are not addressed in the cited authorities.

October 2025, Q27. The annual Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) limit for beef from Argentina is 20,000,000 KG. The quota period is an annual quota that begins on January 1st. A filer entered beef from Argentina as a type 02 quota entry. Quota was allocated and the entry received a presentation date of July 1, 2025. On September 1, 2025, the filer realized that the quantity of the beef was not accurately recorded, and more beef was imported than originally claimed on the entry. The quota filled on August 1, 2025. The entry has not liquidated. Of the options below, what is the best action the filer could take?

  1. ARequest cancellation of the original entry.
  2. BFile a Post Summary Correction (PSC) to correct the entry.
  3. CContact HQ Quota to determine whether any quota quantity can be reserved.
  4. DFile a PSC when the next quota period opens.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: ACE BRPD Section 7.14; 19 CFR 141.67

The correct answer is C because the quota was already filled on August 1, 2025, and the entry has not yet liquidated, leaving a window to address the overage. Contacting HQ Quota allows the filer to explore whether unused quota capacity exists or if adjustments can be made before the quota is fully consumed. Option A is incorrect because canceling the entry would not resolve the overage and could prevent re-entry under the same quota. Option B is flawed because a Post Summary Correction (PSC) cannot adjust quota usage once the quota is filled. Option D is impractical as waiting until the next quota period would likely miss the opportunity to correct the error within the current quota period. Authority: 19 CFR 141.67 (recall of entries before effective time).

October 2025, Q34. Of the four choices below, which is the best CLASSIFICATION of a machine that produces glass fibers? This machine is a highly specialized piece of equipment that operates at elevated temperatures to produce glass fibers using molten glass. Due to the size of the complete machine, it cannot be shipped on a single conveyance. The importer of record elected to enter the machine disassembled and in multiple shipments within six days at the Port of Newark. The first shipment was released pursuant to a special permit for immediate delivery upon arrival. After the components are imported, they will be delivered directly to the customer and will be assembled then.

  1. A8475.29.0000
  2. B8479.89.9599
  3. C8464.90.0110
  4. D8475.90.9000
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 8475.29.0000 HTSUS; GRI 2(a); 19 CFR 141.58; 19 CFR 142.21(h)

The correct classification is 8475.29.0000 HTSUS because the machine is explicitly described as a device for "manufacturing or hot working glass or glassware," which aligns with the HTSUS text for this code. The machine’s function of producing glass fibers using molten glass at elevated temperatures falls squarely under "hot working," distinguishing it from 8464.90.0110 (cold working) and 8475.90.9000 (parts). Option B is too generic and unrelated to glass manufacturing. The entry procedures under 19 CFR 141.58 and 142.21(h) do not affect classification but confirm the importer’s compliance with customs rules for disassembled imports.

October 2025, Q52. ABC Importer is importing tracing paper from Germany which is classifiable under subheading 4806.30 of the HTSUS. The paper is being imported as rolls measuring 20 cm in width and 100 yards in length. Which of the following pieces of additional information is NOT required to be included for entry on the invoice or other document accompanying the invoice?

  1. AWeight of paper in grams per square meter
  2. BLength of the paper in cm
  3. CDiameter of the roll in cm
  4. DWidth of the paper in cm
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: B  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.89(a)

The correct answer is B because 19 CFR 141.89(a) does not specify that the length of paper in centimeters is required for merchandise classified under HTSUS 4806.30. The cited authority lists requirements for specific categories (e.g., cotton fabrics, copper articles), but none of these apply to tracing paper. Options A, C, and D are not explicitly required by the text, but the question asks which is not required, and the absence of length requirements in the cited text confirms B is correct. Other options may be relevant to other HTSUS classifications, but the text does not mandate them for this case.

October 2025, Q55. Which of the following documents is NOT evidence of the right to make entry for merchandise imported by common carrier which is not released directly to the carrier?

  1. AA commercial or pro forma invoice.
  2. BA shipping receipt or other document presented in lieu of a bill of lading or air waybill bearing a carrier’s certificate.
  3. CA bill of lading or air waybill, presented by the holder thereof, properly endorsed when endorsement is required under the law.
  4. DAn extract from a bill of lading or air waybill certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.11(a)

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.11(a) explicitly lists only documents related to bills of lading, air waybills, or carrier certificates as evidence of the right to make entry. A commercial or pro forma invoice is not mentioned in the cited authority as acceptable evidence for this purpose. Options B, C, and D are directly referenced in 19 CFR 141.11(a) as valid documents, while a pro forma invoice serves a different function (e.g., pricing or transaction details) and is not recognized by the regulation as entry evidence.

October 2025, Q57. Izzie Stein is the importer of record (IOR) on a shipment of goods she purchased directly from a foreign manufacturer. The shipment has estimated duties, taxes, and fees due of $5,800.00. Ms. Stein sold the merchandise to a consignee. Ms. Stein pays her customs broker the $5,800.00 owed to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) but later gets a notice that the duties were never paid. Who will CBP bill for the unpaid duties and why?

  1. AThe customs broker will be billed because they received the duty payment from Ms. Stein.
  2. BThe foreign manufacturer will be billed because they are the pay-to party on the commercial invoice.
  3. CThe consignee will be billed because they received the shipment of goods.
  4. DMs. Stein will be billed because she is the importer of record.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.1(b)(1)

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 141.1(b)(1) explicitly states that the importer of record (IOR) bears personal liability for unpaid duties, regardless of whether a customs broker received the payment. The liability cannot be discharged by the broker’s actions, and the IOR remains responsible even if the broker fails to remit the funds to CBP. Option A is incorrect because the broker’s receipt of payment does not absolve the IOR of liability, as the rule emphasizes the IOR’s personal debt to the United States. Option B is incorrect because the foreign manufacturer’s role as the pay-to party on the invoice does not create legal liability for unpaid duties under the cited authority. Option C is incorrect because the consignee, who merely receives the goods, is not the IOR and thus does not incur liability for duties under the regulation.

October 2025, Q67. An Irish golf accessory manufacturer, acting as the importer of record, imports golf balls to give away as a promotion at a tournament it is sponsoring. Because there is no sale at the time of import, what value must be listed on the invoice?

  1. AThe value calculated based on the manufacturer's average shipment value for the last 12 months.
  2. BThe highest value the manufacture has received for the sale of similar goods.
  3. CThere is no value because there is no sale.
  4. DThe value as if the manufacturer sold the golf balls to an importer in the ordinary course of trade.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.86(a)(6); 19 CFR 152.101(b)

The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 152.101(b) mandates that the value for customs purposes must be determined as if the goods were sold to an importer in the ordinary course of trade, regardless of whether a sale actually occurs. This ensures consistency in valuation and prevents underreporting of value for duty purposes. Option C is incorrect because the absence of a sale does not exempt the importer from providing a value; the regulations require a hypothetical value based on market conditions. Options A and B are not supported by the cited authority, as they rely on arbitrary or non-market-based benchmarks rather than the standard valuation rule.

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