October 2025 Customs Broker Exam

The October 2025 customs broker license exam was administered on Wednesday, October 22, 2025. 80 multiple-choice questions in 4.5 hours, with 60 correct needed to pass. CBP reported a 12% pass rate prior to appeal decisions. 73 questions from this sitting are in the simulator, each with the official citation from CBP's answer key and a plain-English explanation.

What this sitting was like

At 12 percent, this was the hardest sitting in recent memory: the exam before it passed 30 percent of candidates and the one after it passed 22 percent. If you want to know what a worst-case CBLE looks like, this is the one to practice.

Citations on this sitting clustered in 19 CFR Part 111, Part 141 and Part 152, per CBP's own answer key.

Five questions from this exam

Q1. Which ONE of the following constitutes an impermissible "misuse of license or permit" pursuant to CBP regulations pertaining to licensed customs brokers?

  1. AA broker allows an unlicensed person, who is not an employee, to solicit, promote or perform any customs business or transaction using the broker's license.
  2. BA broker influences or attempts to influence the conduct of any representative of the Department of Homeland Security in any pending matter by the use of duress or false accusation.
  3. CA broker procures or attempts to procure information from Government records to which they have not been granted access by proper authority.
  4. DA broker knowingly uses false or misleading representations to procure employment pertaining to a customs matter.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 111.37; 19 CFR 111.34; 19 CFR 111.33; 19 CFR 111.38

The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 111.37 explicitly prohibits a licensed broker from allowing their license to be used by unlicensed individuals (other than their own authorized employees) for customs business or transactions. This directly matches the scenario in option A. The other options involve violations of different CBP regulations: B pertains to influencing government officials (19 CFR 111.34), C relates to unauthorized access to government records (19 CFR 111.33), and D involves fraudulent employment practices (19 CFR 111.38), none of which are directly tied to the misuse of a license as defined in 19 CFR 111.37.

Q21. What is the dutiable value of the press?

  1. A$65,000.00
  2. B$80,000.00
  3. C$99,600.00
  4. D$114,600.00
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 19 CFR 152.103(a)(1); 19 CFR 152.103(i)

The correct answer is A) 65,000.00 because the dutiable value is determined by the "price actually paid or payable" under 19 CFR 152.103(a)(1), which excludes indirect payments, freight, or insurance charges. The other options (B, C, D) likely include additional costs or adjustments not permitted under the regulation, such as C.I.F. charges or other non-transactional expenses, which are explicitly excluded as per Example 4 in the text.

Q27. The annual Tariff Rate Quota (TRQ) limit for beef from Argentina is 20,000,000 KG. The quota period is an annual quota that begins on January 1st. A filer entered beef from Argentina as a type 02 quota entry. Quota was allocated and the entry received a presentation date of July 1, 2025. On September 1, 2025, the filer realized that the quantity of the beef was not accurately recorded, and more beef was imported than originally claimed on the entry. The quota filled on August 1, 2025. The entry has not liquidated. Of the options below, what is the best action the filer could take?

  1. ARequest cancellation of the original entry.
  2. BFile a Post Summary Correction (PSC) to correct the entry.
  3. CContact HQ Quota to determine whether any quota quantity can be reserved.
  4. DFile a PSC when the next quota period opens.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: ACE BRPD Section 7.14; 19 CFR 141.67

The correct answer is C because the quota was already filled on August 1, 2025, and the entry has not yet liquidated, leaving a window to address the overage. Contacting HQ Quota allows the filer to explore whether unused quota capacity exists or if adjustments can be made before the quota is fully consumed. Option A is incorrect because canceling the entry would not resolve the overage and could prevent re-entry under the same quota. Option B is flawed because a Post Summary Correction (PSC) cannot adjust quota usage once the quota is filled. Option D is impractical as waiting until the next quota period would likely miss the opportunity to correct the error within the current quota period. Authority: 19 CFR 141.67 (recall of entries before effective time).

Q34. Of the four choices below, which is the best CLASSIFICATION of a machine that produces glass fibers? This machine is a highly specialized piece of equipment that operates at elevated temperatures to produce glass fibers using molten glass. Due to the size of the complete machine, it cannot be shipped on a single conveyance. The importer of record elected to enter the machine disassembled and in multiple shipments within six days at the Port of Newark. The first shipment was released pursuant to a special permit for immediate delivery upon arrival. After the components are imported, they will be delivered directly to the customer and will be assembled then.

  1. A8475.29.0000
  2. B8479.89.9599
  3. C8464.90.0110
  4. D8475.90.9000
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: A  · Authority: 8475.29.0000 HTSUS; GRI 2(a); 19 CFR 141.58; 19 CFR 142.21(h)

The correct classification is 8475.29.0000 because the machine is explicitly described in the HTSUS as a "machine for manufacturing or hot working glass or glassware," which matches the function of producing glass fibers using molten glass at elevated temperatures. Option B (8479.89.9599) is incorrect because it covers unspecified machinery not aligned with the specific glassworking function. Option C (8464.90.0110) is for "cold working" glass, which does not apply here. Option D (8475.90.9000) refers to parts, not the complete machine. The HTSUS text and GRI 2(a) confirm that the machine qualifies as a single entity under 8475.29.0000, even when imported disassembled, as per 19 CFR 141.58 and 142.21(h).

Q8. Suzy Smith is a licensed customs broker, and her license is overseen by the Processing Center located in Miami, Florida. Ms. Smith seeks to obtain a national permit in her individual capacity to transact customs business throughout the customs territory of the United States. Ms. Smith's application included the following information: (1) the applicant's broker license number and date of issuance; (2) the address, telephone number, and email address of the office designated by the applicant as the office of record; (3) the name, telephone number, and email address of the point of contact to be available to CBP to respond to issues related to the transaction of customs business; (4) a list of all employees together with the specific employee information prescribed in 19 CFR 111.28 for each employee; (5) the location where records will be retained; (6) the name, telephone number, and email address of the knowledgeable employee responsible for broker-wide records maintenance and financial recordkeeping requirements; (7) and a receipt showing that the fees specified in 19 CFR 111.96(b) and (c) have been paid. What additional materials must Ms. Smith provide to complete her application for a national permit?

  1. AA request to move oversight of her license to CBP Headquarters.
  2. BA waiver for the national permit examination.
  3. CA supervision plan describing how she will exercise responsible supervision and control over the customs business conducted under the national permit.
  4. DA list of her past employers, regardless of whether the employment was related to the transaction of customs business.
Show the answer and explanation
Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 111.19(b)(8)

The correct answer is C because 19 CFR 111.19(b)(8) explicitly requires a supervision plan detailing how the applicant will exercise responsible oversight of customs business conducted under the national permit. This requirement is not addressed in the materials Ms. Smith submitted, which focus on administrative details like contact information, employee records, and fees. The other options are not mandated by the regulation: A is unrelated to permit requirements, B is irrelevant since the permit application does not involve an examination, and D is not specified in the HTSUS text or notes.

That is 5 of 73. Sit the full October 2025 exam →

Answers and citations are from CBP's published answer key. CBP does not modify answer keys after appeal decisions, so where an appeal later overturned an answer, the key still shows the original.

What this exam was written against

The reference editions in force for this sitting. Editions matter: a question written against an older HTSUS or CFR can test a rule that has since changed.

Sit this exam

73 questions from this sitting are in the simulator, in their original exam order, on a 4 hour 6 minute clock. Same order the candidates saw them in, same pace.

7 questions are left out: 3 depended on exhibits CBP never published or were credited to every candidate, and 4 tested law that has since changed. The directions screen notes this before you start, so nothing is a surprise mid exam.

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CBP's official answer keys for recent exams are on CBP's past-exams page (the five most recent sittings only). Last verified against cbp.gov: August 2, 2026.