October 2024 Customs Broker Exam
The October 2024 customs broker license exam (CBLE) was an open-book sitting of 80 multiple-choice questions in 4.5 hours, with 60 correct needed to pass. 79 questions from this sitting are in the simulator, each with the official citation from CBP's answer key and a plain-English explanation.
What this sitting was like
Citations on this sitting clustered in 19 CFR Part 111, Part 190 and Part 152, per CBP's own answer key.
Five questions from this exam
Q1. Which ONE of the following permits constitute sufficient permit authority for a customs broker to conduct customs business within the customs territory of the U.S.?
- ANational permit
- BAssociation or corporation permit
- CPartnership permit
- DNo permit
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 111.2(b) explicitly states that a national permit issued under §111.19 constitutes sufficient authority for a customs broker to conduct business. The other options are not mentioned in the cited text as valid permits; the section only addresses the national permit as sufficient. Options B, C, and D are not supported by the cited authority, which does not reference association/corporation permits, partnership permits, or the absence of a permit as valid authorization.
Q16. Which of the following statements is FALSE with respect to the Power of Attorney (POA)?
- AThe language in the POA confirming that Echo’s agent is: 1) a resident; and 2) authorized to accept service of process against Echo means that the POA can be accepted by CBP pursuant to 19 CFR 141.36.
- BThe POA must also have attached documentation establishing the authority of Joan McKay to execute the POA on behalf of Echo pursuant to 19 CFR 141.37.
- CThe written notification set forth in 19 CFR 111.29(b)(1) must be on, or attached to, the POA pursuant to 111.29(b)(2)(i).
- DThe POA must contain a corporate seal of the grantor as specified in 19 CFR 113.37(g)(1)(v).
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is D because 19 CFR 111.29 does not mention a requirement for a corporate seal on a POA. The cited authority focuses on the broker’s obligations to provide written notification to clients about payment responsibilities, not on POA formatting requirements like corporate seals. Options A, B, and C align with other sections (141.36, 141.37, 141.38) that address agent authorization, documentation of authority, and attachment of written notifications, which are explicitly covered in the cited authority. Option D introduces a rule not found in the cited authority, making it false.
Q52. Non-quota merchandise that is subject to the Section 232 Presidential Proclamation regarding steel and covered by an entry for immediate transportation made at the port of original importation, if entered for consumption at the port designated by the consignee or his agent in such transportation entry without having been taken into custody by the port director for general order under 19 USC 1490, shall be subject to the duty rates in effect when _____.
- AThe immediate transportation entry was accepted at the port of original importation.
- BThe shipment arrives at the final destination and a consumption entry is filed.
- CNever. Immediate transportation entries are not subject to duties because they are not actually entered into commerce.
- DThe immediate transportation shipment is destined for the United States (date of export).
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is A because 19 CFR 141.69(b) explicitly states that duty rates for merchandise entered for immediate transportation are determined at the time the entry is accepted at the port of original importation, regardless of subsequent events. Option B is incorrect because the regulation does not tie duty rates to the arrival at the final destination or filing of a consumption entry. Option C is wrong because the regulation explicitly applies duty rates to such entries, contradicting the claim that no duties apply. Option D is irrelevant as the date of export is not referenced in the cited authority.
Q74. Acme Company in the United States paid $7,000 to a Brazilian factory for a shipment of hula hoops, CIF terms of sale. The $7,000 consists of $6,500 for the toys and $500 for ocean freight and insurance. The Brazilian factory charged Acme Company $8,250 for the toys; however, because the Brazilian factory owed Acme Company $1,750, the Brazilian factory charged only $6,500 for the hula hoops. What is the transaction value?
- A$6,500.00
- B$7,000.00
- C$8,250.00
- D$8,750.00
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is C) $8,250.00 because the transaction value is the "price actually paid or payable" under 19 CFR 152.103(a)(1), which includes the full amount agreed upon by the parties before any offsets or debts. The $1,750 debt owed by the Brazilian factory to Acme does not reduce the transaction value, as the price payable remains $8,250. Option A ($6,500) incorrectly assumes the debt reduces the transaction value, but 19 CFR 152.103(a)(1) explicitly states the price is determined without regard to debts or offsets. Option B ($7,000) includes freight and insurance, which are not part of the transaction value under CIF terms, as the transaction value pertains to the goods themselves, not transportation costs. Option D ($8,750) incorrectly adds the freight and insurance to the original price, which is not required by the cited authority.
Q48. Using the provided calendar and facts, calculate 1) the date duties, taxes, and fees were DUE after customs release; 2) the last day to file a trade preference claim under the U.S.-Mexico-Canada Agreement (USMCA) under 19 U.S.C. 1520(d) for a refund of excess duties paid; and 3) the last day to file a protest under 19 U.S.C. 1514 for a claim unrelated to a USMCA trade preference claim. • The importer imported merchandise from Mexico. • Entry line 001 was for merchandise that was not eligible for a duty preference claim and the value of the merchandise included an assist that had been fully apportioned on entries made during 2023. • Entry line 002 was for merchandise upon which a duty preference claim was made at the time of entry under the USMCA; however the blanket certificate of origin for the merchandise had expired on January 1, 2024. • Date of Import: January 8, 2024 • Date of Entry: January 9, 2024 • Date entry summary was filed and duties paid: January 19, 2024 • Pending Liquidation Date: November 22, 2024 • A CBP Import Specialist reviewed the entry and denied the preference claim by issuing a CBP Form 29 Notice of Action. The importer did not contest the notice of action. • Actual liquidation date: March 15, 2024 when the Import Specialist processed the rate advance which generated a bill for the duty due. The importer wants to file a protest for the merchandise on line 001 for a refund of the duty paid on the assist that was inadvertently included, and the importer wants to file a post-entry claim for the USMCA duty preference claim that was denied.
- AJanuary 19, 2024; September 11, 2024; September 11, 2024
- BJanuary 24, 2024; January 8, 2025; September 11, 2024
- CJanuary 22, 2024; January 9, 2025; May 21, 2025
- DJanuary 23, 2024; January 19, 2025; June 13, 2024
Show the answer and explanation
The correct answer is B because the date duties were due after customs release is January 24, 2024, calculated as 10 working days after the entry date (January 9, 2024) under 19 CFR 142.12(b). The last day to file a USMCA trade preference claim is January 8, 2025, one year after the entry date (January 9, 2024) under 19 CFR 182.31, though the entry summary was filed later, the claim deadline is tied to the entry date. The last day to file a protest is September 11, 2024, 90 days after the actual liquidation date (March 15, 2024) under 19 CFR 171.12(e), which applies to protests unrelated to trade preference claims. Other options are incorrect because they misapply deadlines tied to the entry summary filing date or miscalculate the 90-day protest period.
That is 5 of 79. Sit the full October 2024 exam →
Answers and citations are from CBP's published answer key. CBP does not modify answer keys after appeal decisions, so where an appeal later overturned an answer, the key still shows the original.
What this exam was written against
The reference editions in force for this sitting. Editions matter: a question written against an older HTSUS or CFR can test a rule that has since changed.
- Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (2024 Basic Edition, No Supplements) (HTSUS)
- Title 19, Code of Federal Regulations (2023 Revised as of April 1, 2023) (Parts 1 to 140) (Parts 141 to 199) (Parts 200 to End)
- ACE Entry Summary Instructions Version 2.4a (ACE ES)
- Right to Make Entry (RTME) Directive 3530-002A
- ACE Entry Summary Business Rules and Process Document (Trade-External 12.0, December 2023 (Chapters 1 through 24) (ACE BRPD)
Sit this exam
79 questions from this sitting are in the simulator, in their original exam order, on a 4 hour 27 minute clock. Same order the candidates saw them in, same pace.
1 question is left out: the law they tested has changed since. The directions screen notes this before you start, so nothing is a surprise mid exam.
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CBP's official answer keys for recent exams are on CBP's past-exams page (the five most recent sittings only). Last verified against cbp.gov: August 2, 2026.