October 2020 (PM) Customs Broker Exam

Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.68(e)

The correct answer is D) February 19. The broker filed an entry summary serving as both the entry documentation and the entry summary, so the branch that applies is 19 CFR 141.68(b): the time of entry is when that entry summary is filed in proper form with estimated duties attached. But 19 CFR 141.68(e) controls when that can happen. It provides that an entry, or an entry summary which serves as both the entry and entry summary, will not "be considered filed or presented, until the merchandise has arrived within the port limits with the intent to unlade." The February 17 filing therefore cannot take effect on that date, because the furniture was still at sea. February 18 does not work either. The ship called at Long Beach, but only to unlade other cargo; there was no intent to unlade this furniture there, which is what (e) requires. The shipment arrived within the port limits of San Francisco, its intended port, and was unladed on February 19, so that is the earliest possible date of entry. February 20 is merely when the goods reached Company A's storage, which is after entry and does not bear on it.

Correct answer: D  · Authority: CBP Form 5291, 19 CFR 141.32

The correct answer is D) CBP Form 5291 because 19 CFR 141.32 explicitly states that this form is used to grant power of attorney for Customs business. The text provides an example of the form’s content, confirming its role in authorizing agents to act on behalf of principals. The other options (A, B, C, E) are not referenced in the cited authority, so they lack support from the cited regulation.

Correct answer: C  · Authority: 19 CFR 141.61(e)

The correct answer is C) CF 7501 because 19 CFR 141.61(d) explicitly states that the importer number must be reported on CBP Form 7501 for entry summaries, which includes withdrawals for consumption. The other options are not mentioned in the cited text, so they lack direct authority. For example, CF 7523 is not referenced here, and the text does not describe the forms for other options like CF 3461 or CF 6043. The rule is confined to the form specified in the regulation for entry summaries, which applies to withdrawals.

Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 152.101 67 Credit to All 19 CFR 10.1010, 19 CFR 10.1012, HTSUS General Note 33

The correct answer is D) Derivative Value because the Trade Agreements Act of 1979, as implemented in 19 CFR 152.101(b), explicitly lists five valid methods of appraisement: transaction value, transaction value of identical merchandise, transaction value of similar merchandise, deductive value, and computed value. Derivative Value is not among these methods. The tempting options A, B, C, and E are valid because they correspond directly to the methods outlined in 19 CFR 152.101(b)(1) through (5). The cited authority does not mention "derivative value" as a permissible method, confirming its invalidity.

Correct answer: D  · Authority: 19 CFR 24.23

The correct answer is D because the total fees and duties include the 2.4% ad valorem duty (9875 × 0.024 = 237.00), the 0.3464% MPF (9875 × 0.003464 = 34.21), and the 72.65% antidumping duty (9875 × 0.7265 = 7174.19), summing to 7445.40. Option A omits the antidumping duty entirely. Option B incorrectly adds only the normal duty and antidumping duty but excludes the MPF. Option C includes the normal duty and antidumping duty but miscalculates the MPF. Option E incorrectly applies the antidumping rate to the total of the normal duty and MPF instead of the full value.